Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2013 | SLET NE Paper 1 Solved 2013


Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2013

SLET NE Paper 1 Solved 2013

[Time: 1.15 hour; Maximum Marks: 100]

Note: There are Sixty (60) questions, out of which you are to answer fifty (50) questions only. If you answer more than fifty (50) questions, then only the first fifty (50) questions attempted will be evaluated. The questions carry two (2) marks each.

In this post you will get Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2013 with Proper Explanation. SLET NE Commerce Solved Paper (2012 to 2022) is also available on our website.

Assam SLET Exam is conducted every year by SLET Commission NE Region. Question Papers of Assam SLET Exam is tough as compared to UGC NET Exam question paper. Syllabus of Assam SLET (SLET NE) Exam and UGC NET exam is similar. You can refer Assam SLET Paper 1 syllabus for 2023 here.

assam slet paper 1 solved 2013

Assam SLET (SLETNE) Solved Question Papers – General Paper Solutions (2012 to 2022)

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2012

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2013

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2014

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2015

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2017

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2018

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2019

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2021

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2022

1. While teaching English, various teachers keep in their mind the following objectives:

I. To increase vocabulary (stock of words).

II. To develop the skill of sentence construction.

III. To understand thoroughly the content of the lessons.

IV. To memories answers to all probable questions.

Which of the following would you recommended as the correct objectives for a teacher of English to follow?

A) I and II.

B) III and IV.

C) II and III.

D) II and IV.

Ans: C) II and III. [Read Google Book for Paper 1]

2. Arrange the following teaching processes in order:

(i) relating the present knowledge with the previous knowledge.

(ii) evaluation.

(iii) re-teaching.

(iv) formulating objectives.

(v) presentation of materials.

Select the correct code below:

A) (i)  (ii)  (iii)  (iv)  (v).

B) (ii)  (i)  (iii)  (iv)  (v).

C) (v)  (iv)  (iii)  (i)  (ii).

D) (iv)  (i)  (v)  (ii)  (iii).

Ans: D) (iv)  (i)  (v)  (ii)  (iii).

3. Choose one from the following that will help a teacher to improve his teaching skills most:

A) Workshop on teaching methodology.

B) Class-room interaction analysis.

C) Microteaching.

D) Practice teaching.

Ans: D) Practice teaching.

4. Which of the following ideas should a teacher strive to develop in his students?

A) ‘Express clearly’, come what may.

B) ‘Stop worrying and start living’.

C) ‘What you think, you become’.

D) All of the above.

Ans: A) ‘Express clearly’, come what may.

5. Experts have identified, in general, the following four as methods of teaching:

I. Explanation of facts.

II. Dictation of notes.

III. Student’s activity.

IV. Discussion.

Which combination do you think is suitable for teaching of science?

A) I and II.

B) I and III.

C) II and III.

D) II and IV.

Ans: B) I and III.

6. Gandhiji has given great importance to purposeful creative activity under the gamut of basic education. Which one of the following can be called purposeful creative activity?

A) embroidery.

B) dyeing.

C) making dolls with clay.

D) all of these.

Ans: D) all of these.

7. Teaching, as an interactive and interpersonal influence upon the learners, has been conceived in

A) democratic notion of teaching.

B) autocratic notion of teaching.

C) Laissez faire notion of teaching.

D) Gurukul System.

Ans: A) democratic notion of teaching.

8. Match List I with List II and select the correct match from the codes given below:

List I (Qualities of a test)

List II (Explanation)

1. Objectivity.

2. Satisfactory Norms.

3. Validity.

4. Reliability.

(i) It means the case with which the test can be administered and scored.

(ii) It means the accuracy with which the test measures whatever it measures.

(iii) It means whether or not it can be done again.

(iv) It means the extent to which the test measures what it intends to measure.

(v) It means the extent to which the scores are independent of the scorer.

(vi) It means the standards with which scores can be compared.

Codes:

A) 1-(vi), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(ii).

B) 1-(v), 2-(vi), 3-(iv), 4-(ii).

C) 1-(v), 2-(iv), 3-(vi), 4-(i).

D) 1-(iii), 2-(v), 3-(ii), 4-(iv).

Ans:B) 1-(v), 2-(vi), 3-(iv), 4-(ii).

9. Which of the following sampling procedure gives each item an equal probability of being selected?

A) Systematic sampling.

B) Simple random sampling.

C) Quota sampling.

D) Stratified sampling.

Ans: A) Systematic sampling.

10. What is the criteria for a good hypothesis?

A) It should be precise, specific and consistent with most known facts.

B) It should be formulated in such a way that it can be tested by the data.

C) It should have a limited scope and should not have bad significance.

D) All of the above.

Ans: B) It should be formulated in such a way that it can be tested by the data.

11. Which of the following is / are essential qualities of a good research?

A) Good research is systematic.

B) Good research is logical.

C) Both A) and B).

D) None of the above.

Ans: C) Both A) and B).

12. The research, which helps to build new theory, is called

A) Action research.

B) Applied research.

C) Fundamental research.

D) Theoretical research.

Ans: C) Fundamental research.

13. In research, the questions – what, how and why about the problem under study are related to –

A) Research Process.

B) Research Summary.

C) Research outline or proposal.

D) Research Report.

Ans: C) Research outline or proposal.

Read the following passage and answer the questions No. 14 to 18:

The Second World War had its origin in Hitler’s unwillingness to accept the terms of the treaty of Versailles (1919). German, forces invaded Poland on 1 September, 1939 and overran the country in four weeks. Britain and France declared war on Germany on 3 September but avoided major operations. In April 1940, the Germans occupied Denmark and Norway where allied troops resisted for two months.

The invasion of Belgium and Holland on 10 may 1940 opened the period of “lightning war” (Blitzkrieg), in which penetration by German tanks and use of air power encompassed the fall of the Netherlands within four days, Belgium within three weeks, and France within seven weeks.

Failure to secure air superiority over Britain frustrated Hitler’s plans of invasion and, while continuing submarine attacks on British supply routes, the Germans moved eastwards, invading Yugoslavia and Greece in April 1941 and attacking Russia on a 2,000-mile front on 22 June in alliance with Finland, Hungary and Rumania, Relentless German advances in Russia brought them to the outskirts of Leningrad and Moscow and to the Volga, but from November 1942 they were gradually thrown back, the last invading forces being expelled from pre-war Russia in April 1944.

14. Which two countries declared war on Germany on 3 September 1939?

A) Denmark and Norway.

B) Belgium and Holland.

C) Britain and France.

D) Poland and Belgium.

Ans: C) Britain and France.

15. The period of “lightning war”, known as Blitzkrieg, started with the invasion of which two countries by Germany?

A) Poland and France.

B) Denmark and Norway.

C) Belgium and Holland.

D) Yugoslavia and Greece.

Ans: C) Belgium and Holland.

16. The German attack on Russia lasted

A) From 1939 to 1941.

B) From 1940 to 1944.

C) From 1940 to 1945.

D) From 1941 to 1944.

Ans: D) From 1941 to 1944.

17. In the German invasion of Russia, one of Germany’s allies was:

A) Rumania.

B) Yugoslavia.

C) Greece.

D) Holland.

Ans: A) Rumania.

18. During the period from 1939 to 1941, Germany attacked several countries in Europe. Which of the following represents some of these countries correctly?

A) Belgium, Hungary, Yugoslavia.

B) Denmark, Norway, Finland.

C) France, Rumania, Denmark.

D) Poland, Belgium, Holland.

Ans: D) Poland, Belgium, Holland.

19. Teacher’s communication will be more effective if

A) the teacher is a master in his / her subject,

B) he / she prepares a good number of instructional aids,

C) he / she discusses the previous year’s question paper,

D) he / she starts from what students already know.

Ans: D) he / she starts from what students already know.

20. When was the Education TV first introduced in India?

A) 1954.

B) 1958.

C) 1959.

D) 1970.

Ans: C) 1959.

21. Which of the following will not hamper effective communication in the class?

A) A statement which allows the listener to draw his / her own conclusions.

B) A precise statement.

C) An ambiguous statement.

D) A lengthy statement.

Ans: B) A precise statement.

22. Communication helps in

A) Integration.

B) purchasing power.

C) Entertainment.

D) Persuasion.

Ans: A) Integration.

23. If North-east is South, the South-east is

A) South-west.

B) East.

C) North-east.

D) West.

Ans: D) West.

24. Satellite communication works through

A) Radar.

B) Transponder.

C) Receptor.

D) Transmitter.

Ans: D) Transmitter.

25. The following is an incomplete sequence of letters. Find the letters which should come next: cd,  xw,  gh, ts  ?

A) zy.

B) ij.

C) kl.

D) vu.

Ans: C) kl.

26. In the following sequence one number is wrongly included: 13, 17, 19, 21, 23, 29, 31, 37

Which one is the wrong number?

A) 17.

B) 21.

C) 29.

D) 37.

Ans: D) 37.

Untitled 40

28. What will be the number in the empty box?

Untitled 38

A) 12.

B) 17.

C) 52.

D) 62.

Ans: B) 17.

29. Fill in the blank with appropriate numbers

GUWAHATI   25683894   WHAT   6389   WAIT   6849   GHAT _______

A) 2364.

B) 2369.

C) 2689.

D) 2389.

Ans: D) 2389.

30. There are five Sunday in a month. The first day of the month will be

A) Monday.

B) Tuesday.

C) Thursday.

D) Saturday.

Ans: D) Saturday.

31. Consider the following statement “If a number is divisible by 9, then it is divisible by 3”. Which of the following is equivalent to the above statement?

A) If a number is divisible by 3, then it is divisible by 9.

B) If a number is not divisible by 9, then it is not divisible by 3.

C) If a number is not divisible by 3, then it is not divisible by 9.

D) A number is divisible by 9 if and only if it is divisible by 3.

Ans: D) A number is divisible by 9 if and only if it is divisible by 3.

32. In the following diagrams the big circle represents educated people, the small circle represents the residents in a locality and the ellipse represents people that are rich.

Untitled 39

In a locality it is found that all residents are educated and some residents are rich. This situation is represented by

A) Fig. I.

B) Fig. II.

C) Fig. III.

D) Fig. IV.

Ans: D) Fig. IV.

33. Statements:

(a) All Blacks are Americans.

(b) All Americans are Christians.

Conclusions:

I. Some Christians are black.

II. All Christians are American.

III. Some Americans are black.

IV. All Americans are black.

On the basis of the two statements given at the top which conclusions are correct?

A) I and II.

B) I and III.

C) II and III.

D) II and IV.

Ans: B) I and III.

34. “NEVER TROUBLE TROUBLE TILL TROUBLE TROUBLES YOU”

Which of the following letters appear most in the statement shown above?

A) e.

B) o.

C) r.

D) t.

Ans: A) e.

35. The mental age (M.A.) of an exactly six-year old boy is six years and ten months. What is his nearest I.Q.?

A) 111.

B) 114.

C) 117.

D) 120.

Ans: B) 114.

36. Match each item of the first list with the appropriate item of the second list and choose the correct match using code below:

First List

Second List

1. Montessori.

2. Froebel.

3. Dewey.

4. Rousseau.

(a) Austria.

(b) England.

(c) France.

(d) Germany.

(e) Italy.

(f) Spain.

(g) USA.

Codes:

A) 1-(e), 2-(d), 3-(g), 4-(c).

B) 1-(a), 2-(c), 3-(g), 4-(d).

C) 1-(e), 2-(g), 3-(f), 4-(c).

D) 1-(f), 2-(d), 3-(b), 4-(g).

Ans: A) 1-(e), 2-(d), 3-(g), 4-(c).

37. Which of the following statements is false?

A) If 3 +4 = 7, then 3 > 7.

B) If 4 > 5, then 5 < 6.

C) If 3 > 7, then 6 > 14.

D) If 7 > 3, then 14 > 6.

Ans: A) If 3 +4 = 7, then 3 > 7.

38. The following distribution indicates the life-time of 400 tube lights tested in a company:

Life-time (Hours)

Number of tube lights

300-399

400-499

500-599

600-699

700-799

800-899

900-999

1000-1099

1100-1199

14

46

58

76

68

62

48

22

6

What is the percentage of tube lights whose life-time is at least 500 but less than 1000 hours?

A) 76.

B) 77.

C) 78.

D) 79.

Ans: C) 78.

39. A car travel 30km at 30kmph, 30km at 60kmph, and 10km at 40kmph. The average speed of the car for the entire journey is

A) 40kmph.

B) 40.33kmph.

C) 43kmph.

D) 43.33kmph.

Ans: A) 40kmph.

40. From his house, a man goes 3 kms towards west; then he turns to his right and goes 4 kms. Now from his present position what is the minimum distance to his house?

A) 4 km.

B) 5 km.

C) 6 km.

D) 7 km.

Ans: B) 5 km.

41. A cube has to be coloured in such a way as to avoid the same colour on adjacent surfaces. What is the minimum number of colours you will require?

A) Three.

B) Four.

C) Nine.

D) Six.

Ans: A) Three.

42. The prefix “hypo” in hypothesis indicates

A) Same.

B) Similar.

C) over.

D) under.

Ans: C) over.

43. MICR stands for

A) Magnetic Integral Character Reader.

B) Magnetic Integral Chart Reader.

C) Magnetic Ink Character Reader.

D) Magnetic International Chart Reader.

Ans: C) Magnetic Ink Character Reader.

44. Dot Matrix is a type of

A) Tape.

B) Disk.

C) Printer.

D) Bus.

Ans: C) Printer.

45. OCR stands for

A) Optical Character Reader.

B) Optical Character Recognition.

C) Operational Character Reader.

D) Only Character Reader.

Ans: B) Optical Character Recognition.

46. The device used to connect a computer to a telephone line is

A) HTML.

B) XML.

C) MODEM.

D) FTP.

Ans: C) MODEM.

47. HTTP

A) is an access method used on Internet.

B) is a popular way of communication on the electronic frontier.

C) is the way to meet people and share information.

D) is an Internet address.

Ans: B) is a popular way of communication on the electronic frontier.

48. Which of the following is not a commonly followed direction or path of human communication?

A) Vertical.

B) Circular.

C) Lateral.

D) Diagonal.

Ans: C) Lateral.

49. The group of animals, belonging to the same species, is known as

A) ecosystem.

B) population.

C) community.

D) none of these.

Ans: D) none of these.

50. Stress and anxiety are caused by

A) air pollution.

B) noise pollution.

C) water pollution.

D) nuclear pollution.

Ans: B) noise pollution.

51. Air-borne diseases mainly cause harm to

A) digestive system.

B) circulatory system.

C) reproductive system.

D) respiratory system.

Ans: C) reproductive system.

52. Which of the following is not caused due to global warming?

A) Melting of polar icecaps.

B) formation of acid rain.

C) Change of climate.

D) Rise of sea-levels.

Ans: C) Change of climate.

53. Soil erosion can be prevented by

A) aforestation.

B) deforestation.

C) overgrazing.

D) removal of vegetation.

Ans: A) aforestation.

54. Indira Gandhi Canal has brought greenery to

A) Haryana.

B) Rajasthan.

C) Karnataka.

D) Andhra Pradesh.

Ans: B) Rajasthan.

55. In which of the following year, education was placed under the ‘Concurrent list’?

A) 1974.

B) 1975.

C) 1976.

D) 1977.

Ans: C) 1976.

56. Which of the following bodies grant(s) fund for higher education?

Answer using Codes below:

(i) UGC.

(ii) State Government.

(iii) Municipal Corporation and Zila Parishad.

(iv) Central Government.

Codes:

A) Only (i).

B) Only (iii) and (iv).

C) (i), (ii) and (iv).

D) (ii) and (iii).

Ans: A) Only (i).

57. The UGC has proposed a set of triple objectives for enhancing access to higher education in its 12th Plan document. Which one of the following fully covers the triple objectives?

A) Access and expansion, equity and inclusion, and quality and excellence.

B) Access and enrolment, equity and expansion and quality.

C) Access to cover all areas, equity across all sections, and excellence.

D) Access to deprived sections, equity with justice to all, and quality and excellence.

Ans: B) Access and enrolment, equity and expansion and quality.

58. The University Grants Commission (UGC) was established in

A) 1952.

B) 1957.

C) 1987.

D) 1989.

Ans: A) 1952.

59. Which of the following is not entrusted with the responsibility of setting up University?

A) Central Government.

B) Parliament.

C) Upper House.

D) State Legislature.

Ans: C) Upper House.

60. Who is the chief of the UGC?

A) Secretary.

B) Ministry of Human Resource Development.

C) Minister of State.

D) Chairperson.

Ans: D) Chairperson.


Leave a Comment

error: Content is protected !!