Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2015

SLET NE Paper 1 Solved 2015

[Time: 1.15 hour; Maximum Marks: 100]

Note: There are Sixty (60) questions, out of which you are to answer fifty (50) questions only. If you answer more than fifty (50) questions, then only the first fifty (50) questions attempted will be evaluated. The questions carry two (2) marks each.

In this post you will get Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2015 with Proper Explanation. SLET NE Commerce Solved Paper (2012 to 2022) is also available on our website.

Assam SLET Exam is conducted every year by SLET Commission NE Region. Question Papers of Assam SLET Exam is tough as compared to UGC NET Exam question paper. Syllabus of Assam SLET (SLET NE) Exam and UGC NET exam is similar. You can refer Assam SLET Paper 1 syllabus for 2023 here.

assam slet paper 1 solved 2015

Also Read: Assam SLET (SLETNE) Solved Question Papers – General Paper Solutions (2012 to 2023)

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2012

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Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2023

1. Of the following two statements one is Assertion (Ass) and the other Reason (R). Examine these two statements and decide if (Ass) and the (R) are individually true and if so whether (R) is the correct explanation for the given (Ass).

Assertion (Ass): The Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.

Reason (R): The Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a united Indian nation.

Codes:

A) Both Ass and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

B) Both Ass and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of Ass.

C) Ass is true but R is false.

D) Ass is false but R is true.

Ans: C) Ass is true but R is false.

2. Of the following two statements one is Assertion (Ass) and the other Reason (R). Examine these two statements and decide if (Ass) and the (R) are individually true and if so whether (R) is the correct explanation for the given (Ass). Select your answer using Codes given below:

Assertion (Ass): The boiling point of water decreases as the altitude increases.

Reason (R): The atmospheric pressure increases with the increase in altitude.

Codes:

A) Both Ass and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

B) Both Ass and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of Ass.

C) Ass is true but R is false.

D) Ass is false but R is true.

Ans: A) Both Ass and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

3. Of the following two statements one is Assertion (Ass) and the other Reason (R). Examine these two statements and decide if (Ass) and the (R) are individually true and if so whether (R) is the correct explanation for the given (Ass). Select your answer using Codes given below:

Assertion (Ass): A piece of copper and a piece of tinted glass are heated to the same temperature. When touched thereafter the copper piece appears hotter than the glass piece.

Reason (R): The density of the copper is more than that of glass.

Codes:

A) Both Ass and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

B) Both Ass and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of Ass.

C) Ass is true but R is false.

D) Ass is false but R is true.

Ans: B) Both Ass and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of Ass. [Read Google Book]

4. Of the following, the main purpose of state certification teachers is to

A) Monitor the quality of teacher training institutions.

B) Provide for a uniform standard of entry-level teacher competency throughout the state.

C) Exclude from the profession those who are not trained in pedagogy.

D) Exclude from the profession those who are mentally unhealthy.

Ans: B) Provide for a uniform standard of entry-level teacher competency throughout the state.

5. A successful teacher would do well to avoid the following Express your responses as ‘True’ or ‘False’ using Codes given below:

(a) Stating opinions as facts.

(b) Under promise his performance goals and over perform.

(d) Avoids admitting ignorance.

Codes:

A) (a)-False, (b)-True, (c)-True, (d)-False.

B) (a)-True, (b)-False, (c)-True, (d)-True.

C) (a)-True, (b)-False, (c)-False, (d)-True.

D) (a)-False, (b)-False, (c)-True, (d)-False.

Ans: B) (a)-True, (b)-False, (c)-True, (d)-True.

6. The following statements describe certain characteristics of a teacher who is trying to succeed in the profession. Which of these are “True” and which are “False”. Indicate using codes.

(a) Admits if something wrong is said or done.

(b) Feedback from students is not sought.

(d) Dies not care about his style of work.

Codes:

A) (a)-True, (b)-False, (c)-True, (d)-False.

B) (a)-True, (b)-True, (c)-False, (d)-False.

C) (a)-True, (b)-True, (c)-True, (d)-False.

D) (a)-False, (b)-True, (c)-True, (d)-False.

Ans: A) (a)-True, (b)-False, (c)-True, (d)-False.

7. Match the terms given under Column I with the corresponding meanings given under Column II and indicate your responses using codes given below:

Column I

Column II

(a) Data.

(b) Information.

(d) Document.

1. Basis to make prediction of outcome of actions.

2. Processed information usable as formal / official record.

3. Basic facts and entities.

4. Meaningful matter usable in decision making.

Codes:

A) (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4.

B) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2.

C) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1.

D) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2.

Ans: D) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2.

8. Match the names of certain important days given under Column I with the corresponding dates, given under Column II, on which they are observed / celebrated, using codes given below:

Column I

Column II

(a) Teachers’ Day.

(b) International Literacy Day.

(d) World Environment Day.

1. November 14.

2. June 5.

3. September 5.

4. September 8.

Codes:

A) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1.

B) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2.

C) (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4.

D) (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3.

Ans: B) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2.

9. Criticism referring to the authenticity of data source is called –

A) Empirical Criticism.

B) Constructive Criticism.

C) External Criticism.

D) None of the above.

Ans: C) Externak Criticism.

[Hint: Empirical Criticism a philosophical theory which argues that human knowledge is derived entirely from sensory experience.

Constructive criticism is a form of feedback that focuses on delivering critique and negative feedback constructively and positively to improve performance or behavior. Constructive criticism is actionable, clear, and beneficial to the recipient.]

10. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark

Pleader – Client, Examiner – Examinee, Preceptor – ?

A) Path-finder.

B) Perceiver.

C) Customer.

D) Disciple.

Ans: D) Disciple. [Hint: वादी – मुवक्किल, परीक्षक – परीक्षार्थी, गुरु – शिष्य]

11. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?

A) g-index.

B) h-index.

C) i1o-index.

D) impact factor.

Ans: D) impact factor.

[Hint: The h index is a metric for evaluating the cumulative impact of an author’s scholarly output and performance; measures quantity with quality by comparing publications to citations.

i10 index generally the number of paper with atleast 10 citations.

g-index is an index for quantifying productivity in science, based on publication record.]

12. When a teacher interacts and communicates with the students in a classroom the communication type is known as –

A) Face to face Communication.

B) Group Communication.

C) Mass Communication.

D) Interpersonal Communication.

Ans: B) Group Communication.

13. Interaction within the classroom should generate

A) Information.

B) Ideas.

C) Argument.

D) Controversy.

Ans: B) Ideas.

14. Find out the missing number of a series – 5, 12, 27, 58, ?

A) 112.

B) 116.

C) 121.

D) 127.

Ans: C) 121. [Hint: 5*2+2=12*2+3=27*2+4=58*2+5=121]

15. The extent to which the findings of research can be generalised is called

A) External Validity.

B) Internal Validity.

C) Content Validity.

D) None of the above.

Ans: A) External validity.

16. Independent variables are manipulated in –

A) Ex post facto research.

B) Experimental research.

C) Ethnographic research.

D) Historical research.

Ans: B) Experimental research.

17. Which of the following is a non-probability sampling?

A) Stratified Random Sampling.

B) Cluster Sampling.

C) Systematic Sampling.

D) Snowballing.

Ans: B) Cluster Sampling.

18. A percentile rank indicates a pupil’s

A) Relative position in a group.

B) Percentage of marks in end term exam.

C) Percentage of marks in a specific subject.

D) None of the above.

Ans: A) Relative position in a group.

19. Which of the following is the correct sequence for writing a thesis?

A) statement of the problem – sample – objectives – analysis – significance of the study – interpretation.

B) objectives – sample – statement of the problem – significance of the study – analysis – interpretation.

C) statement of the problem – objectives – sample – analysis – interpretation – significance of the study.

D) objectives – statement of the problem – significance of the study – sample – analysis – interpretation.

Ans: A) statement of the problem – sample – objectives – analysis – significance of the study – interpretation.

20. Match Set A with Set B.

Set A

Set B

(i) Teacher researchers rectify difficulties in teaching mathematics in Class VIII.

(ii) A researcher administers a pre test and post test and gives a treatment in between.

(iii) A researcher administers an achievement test on a sample & generalizes about the population.

(iv) A researcher looks up manuscripts to find out about a great educationist.

(a) experimental research.

(b) survey research.

(d) action research.

Use Codes below to point the correct match.

Codes:

A) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d).

B) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a).

C) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c).

D) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c).

Ans: D) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c).

21. Mass Communication

A) is meant for delivering messages to the residents of a city.

B) does not need technology based media vehicles.

C) is an impersonal tool for delivering information to the masses.

D) is more effective than dyadic communication so far as rich is concerned.

Ans: C) is an impersonal tool for delivering information to the masses.

22. Find the number that comes next in the sequence

8, 15, 24, 35, ____

A) 37.

B) 42.

C) 48.

D) 35.

Ans: C) 48. [Hint: 8+7=15+9=24+11=35+13=48]

23. Informal Communication network within the organisation in known as

A) interpersonal communication.

B) intrapersonal communication.

C) mass communication.

D) grapevine communication.

Ans: D) grapevine communication.

24. Find the missing word in the following sentence from the choices given below:

_______ is the meaningful outcome of processed data.

A) Knowledge.

B) Information.

C) Output.

D) Summary.

Ans: B) Information.

25. Statistical observation arranged in chronological order is called –

A) Regression.

B) Progression.

C) Time Series.

D) Longitudinal research.

Ans: C) Time Series.

Read the following passage and answer the five questions that follow:

Many traditional Japanese beliefs and practices hark back to prehistoric customs and most of these forms the core of Shinto, the only major religion indigenous to Japan. Indian Buddhism, the Chinese contributions of Confucianism and Taoism (transmitted first through the cultural bride of Korea) and much later Christianity were introduced to Japan from outside. All these foreign traditions have undergone significant transformations in a process of mutual influence with the native tradition.

In Judaism and Christianity religion entails faith in one supreme deity; revelation of the will of this deity in a sacred book; concern with sin as disobedience to the deity; relation of man to divinity through a conscious decision or act of faith; specific ecclesiastical organisations, involving regular attendance and worship; and ethical behaviour linked directly to this religious commitment.

Japanese religion differs significantly on each of the aforementioned points; there are not one but many deities, there is no one sacred book, but many religious scriptures; rather than emphasis on sin as disobedience to the deity there is concern with ritual impurity and purification.

One person usually participates in more than one religious tradition; there is no regular worship day comparable to the Sabbath but many seasonal festivals; and ethical codes are more closely related to family life and philosophy than to organised religion, while ethical shortcomings are not related directly to divine will but are considered in terms of human imperfection.

26. How is sin interpreted in Judaism and Christianity?

A) Thought and action taken against other beings.

B) Violation of socio-cultural norms.

C) Disobedience to supreme deity.

D) Deviant behaviour causing hurt to others.

Ans: C) Disobedience to supreme deity.

27. What is the status of religious books / scriptures in Japanese religion?

A) A single sacred book followed.

B) Several religious scriptures followed.

C) No sacred book.

D) None of the above.

Ans: B) Several religious scriptures followed.

28. What is the important day of worship according to Japanese religion?

A) Wednesday.

B) No day prescribed.

C) Any day of the week.

D) All seasonal festival days.

Ans: D) All seasonal festival days.

29. Which is the major religious tradition of Japan?

A) Shinto.

B) Confucianism.

C) Buddhism.

D) Taoism.

Ans: A) Shinto.

30. How are ethical shortcomings explained in Japanese religion?

A) As isolation against religious authority.

B) Thoughts against divine will.

C) As human imperfections.

D) All of the above.

Ans: C) As human imperfections.

31. Identify the pattern in the following sequence and choose the number that will come next?

6, 19, 58, 175, 526, ?

A) 1669.

B) 1579.

C) 1578.

D) 1668.

Ans: B) 1579.[Hint: 6*3+1=19*3+1=58*3+1=175*3+1=526*3+1=1579]

Untitled 35

33. The maximum number of triangle with

3 points as vertices is 1.

4 points as vertices is 4.

5 points as vertices is 10.

What is the maximum number of triangle with 6 points as vertices?

A) 20.

B) 25.

C) 30.

D) 40.

Ans: A) 20. [Hint: Formula to Find Number of Vertices = n(n-1)(4-2)/(3*2*1). Here n is number of vertices.]

34. The missing number in the following sequence is

1, 9, 25, 49, _______

A) 64.

B) 81.

C) 100.

D) 121.

Ans: B) 81.[Hint: Square of 1, 3, 5, 7 and then 9]

35. In a class of 50 students, all study Mathematics or English, or both. The Mathematics class consists of 25 students, and the English class consists of 30 students. Is this possible?

A) Not possible, because 25 + 30 = 55, which is more than 50.

B) Possible, because there may be students who come from other classes.

C) Not possible, because there should be 25 students in the English class.

D) Possible, because some students have been added twice.

Ans: D) Possible, because some students have been added twice.

36. Consider the Venn Diagram of Sets A, B and C in figure 1. Observe that these sets partition the rectangle (universal set) into 8 numbered sets denoted by 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8. Match the following relation of two columns and find the correct answer from the codes given below:

Untitled 36

Codes:

A) (a)-(2), (b)-(3), (c)-(4), (d)-(1).

B) (a)-(3), (b)-(4), (c)-(1), (d)-(2).

C) (a)-(4), (b)-(1), (c)-(2), (d)-(3).

D) (a)-(1), (b)-(2), (c)-(3), (d)-(4).

Ans: C) (a)-(4), (b)-(1), (c)-(2), (d)-(3).

37. In an examination 25% fails in Mathematics, 15% fails in Physics and 5% fails in both. The number of students that passes in both the subjects is 130. The total member of students appeared in the examination is

A) 200.

B) 300.

C) 350.

D) 400.

Ans: A) 200.

38. The sum of the square of the series

1 + 2 + 3 + ……….. + 5 is

A) 35.

B) 45.

C) 55.

D) 65.

Ans: C) 55.

39. The marks secured by 10 students in a class are:

38, 70, 48, 40, 42, 55, 63, 46, 54, 44 and the median of the distribution is 47. The number of students in percentage securing above the median is

A) 50%.

B) 40%.

C) 30%.

D) 20%.

Ans: A) 50%.[Hint: 5 Students getting more than 47 marks]

40. Four students W X Y Z appeared in two paper I and II in the Test. Their scores out of 100 are given below:

	I	II
W	80	62
X	73	71
Y	90	50
Z	56	85

Who has obtained the highest average?

A) W.

B) X.

C) Y.

D) Z.

Ans: B) X.

41. The number of students in a school is given below:

	Boys	Girls
Class VI	56	62
Class X	58	29

Select True or False statements for the following:

(i) The numbers of boys in Class VI & X are nearly equal.

(ii) The number of girls has decreased considerably in Class X.

(iii) The number of boys and girls is nearly the same in Class X.

(iv) Girls tend to stay on and complete schooling.

Codes:

A) (i)-False, (ii)-True, (iii)-False, (iv)-True.

B) (i)-True, (ii)-True, (iii)-False, (iv)-False.

C) (i)-True, (ii)-True, (iii)-False, (iv)-True.

D) (i)-True, (ii)-False, (iii)-False, (iv)-False.

Ans: B) (i)-True, (ii)-True, (iii)-False, (iv)-False.

42. Twelve people form a club. By picking lots, any one of them will host a dinner for all once in a month. The number of dinners a given number has to host in one year is

A) one.

B) zero.

C) two.

D) cannot be predicted.

Ans: D) cannot be predicted.

43. Full form of WWW is

A) World Wide Network.

B) Wide World Network.

C) World Wide Web.

D) Wide Web Network.

Ans: C) World Wide Web.

44. A computer peripheral device that is used to read printed / handwritten / type written characters into machine encoded text thus enabling us to get the digitized text is

A) OMR.

B) OCR.

C) Digital Camera.

D) Disk Driver.

Ans: B) OCR.

45. Which of the following is not a web browser?

A) Internet Explorer.

B) Mozilla Firefox.

C) Yahoo.

D) Chrome.

Ans: C) Yahoo.

46. Which of the following is the least pollutant?

A) Carbon monoxide.

B) Sulphur-di-oxide.

C) Nitrogen-di-oxide.

D) Carbon-di-oxide.

Ans: A) Carbon monoxide.

47. Of the statements given below some are true and some are false. Find the correct statements from the codes below:

(a) One common gaseous air pollutant is Chlorofluoro-carbons (CFCs).

(b) UNEP – United Nations Education Programme.

(d) It was Charles Darwin who coined the phrase “Survival of the fittest”.

Codes:

A) (a)-True, (b)-False, (c)-True, (d)-False.

B) (a)-False, (b)-True, (c)-False, (d)-True.

C) (a)-True, (b)-True, (c)-False, (d)-False.

D) (a)-False, (b)-False, (c)-False, (d)-True.

Ans: A) (a)-True, (b)-False, (c)-True, (d)-False.

[Hint: UNEP=United Nations Environment Programme.

Herbert Spencer coined the phrase “survival of the fittest”.]

48. Match the following physical features to the geological structures they are related to and select the correct match from the table given below:

1. Horst and graben.

2. Schuppen structure.

3. Saddle reef.

4. Trenches.

(a) Thrust Faults.

(b) Anticlines.

(d) Normal faults.

Codes:

A) 1-(a), 2-(b), 3-(c), 4-(d).

B) 1-(d), 2-(a), 3-(b), 4-(c).

C) 1-(b), 2-(d), 3-(a), 4-(c).

D) 1-(c), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(b).

Ans: B) 1-(d), 2-(a), 3-(b), 4-(c).

49. Match the following types of sedimentary deposits to their environment of deposition and select the correct match from the table given below:

1. Aeolian deposits.

2. Limnic deposits.

3. Paludal deposits.

4. Fluvial deposits.

(a) Lake.

(b) Desert.

(d) Swamp.

Codes:

A) 1-(a), 2-(b), 3-(d), 4-(c).

B) 1-(c), 2-(d), 3-(a), 4-(b).

C) 1-(a), 2-(c), 3-(b), 4-(d).

D) 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(c).

Ans: D) 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(c).

[Hint: Aeolian deposits are sedimentary deposits of sandy soils which are typically developed from sandy parent material through the action of wind.

Limnic deposits relates to bodies of water with low salt concentration, such as lakes and ponds.

Paludal systems include bogs, marshes, swamps, or other wetlands, and usually contain lots of organic matter.

Fluvial deposits are sediments that are transported and deposited by rivers in a continental environment.]

50. Match the following rivers dams to the States they belong and select the correct match from the table given below:

1. Barapani Dam.

2. Koina Dam.

3. Damodar Valley Project.

4. Hirakud Dam.

(a) Maharashtra.

(b) West Bengal.

(d) Karnataka.

(e) Meghalaya.

Codes:

A) 1-(a), 2-(e), 3-(d), 4-(c).

B) 1-(e), 2-(a), 3-(b), 4-(c).

C) 1-(c), 2-(d), 3-(a), 4-(b).

D) 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(e), 4-(d).

Ans: B) 1-(e), 2-(a), 3-(b), 4-(c).

51. Following are two statements – one Assertion (Ass) and the other Reason (R). Find the correct answer from the codes below:

Assertion (Ass): Sea floor spreading hypothesis asserts that older and older portion of the sea floor move continuously further and further away from the mid-oceanic ridges.

Reason (R): There is continuous injection of magma along the ridges.

Codes:

A) Ass is true and R is the true explanation of it.

B) Ass is true but R is not the explanation of Ass.

C) Ass is not true but R is true.

D) Both Ass and R are not true.

Ans: A) Ass is true and R is the true explanation of it.

52. Following are two statements – one Assertion (Ass) and the other Reason (R). Find the correct answer from the codes below:

Assertion (Ass): Unlike the hilly terrain around it, the Brahmaputra Valley, in spite of frequent flood havocs, is thickly populated by human beings.

Reason (R): The alluvial soil deposited by the river is fertile and supports good cultivation.

Codes:

A) Ass is true but R is not the correct explanation of it.

B) Ass is true and R is the correct explanation of it.

C) Ass is not true but R is true.

D) Both Ass and R are not true.

Ans: B) Ass is true and R is the correct explanation of it.

53. Following are two statements – one Assertion (Ass) and the other Reason (R). Find the correct answer from the codes below:

Assertion (Ass): Volcanic eruptions issues highly toxic gases which cause death to many animals but standing human beings are usually spared of death.

Reason (R): These gases are heavier than air and are spread at low levels along the surface of the earth.

Codes:

A) Ass is correct but R is not the true explanation.

B) Ass is not true while R is true.

C) Ass is true and R is the correct explanation to it.

D) Both Ass and R are not true.

Ans: C) Ass is true and R is the correct explanation to it.

54. Which of the following socio-economic problems are related with over population.

A) food.

B) employment.

C) good fertility of soil.

D) all of these.

Ans: D) all of these.

55. For the first time environment was put as an Agendum of International Concern in the Stockholm Conference in the year of.

A) 1972.

B) 1975.

C) 1982.

D) 1985.

Ans: A) 1972.

56. Chipko movement is

A) a movement of political struggle.

B) an environmental movement.

C) a movement for independence.

D) a movement against corrupt political leaders.

Ans: B) an environmental movement.

57. Literary speaking the term “environment” means

A) surroundings.

B) human beings.

C) natural phenomenon.

D) landscape.

Ans: A) surroundings.

58. Lithosphere means

A) Layer of gases. [It is called atmosphere]

B) Layer of sands. [It is called dune]

C) Layer of gravels.

D) None of these.

Ans: C) Layer of gravels.

59. The main source of energy in an ecosystem is

A) head liberated during respiration.

B) heat liberated during fermentation.

C) sugar stored in plants.

D) sunlight (solar energy).

Ans: D) sunlight (solar energy).

60. Which of the following are physiological manifestations of sound pollution?

A) decrease of heart output.

B) damage of night vision.

C) fluctuation in blood pressure.

D) all of these.

Ans: D) all of these.