SLET NE Commerce Solved Paper 2015 [Paper II] (Based on Memory)

SLET NE Commerce Solved Paper 2015 (Paper II)

Assam SLET Solved Question Paper Commerce

Based on Memory and Adjusted As per New Syllabus

[Time: 2 hours; Maximum Marks: 200]

Note: This paper contains Hundred (100) objective type questions, each question carrying two (02) marks. All the questions are compulsory.

In this post you will get SLET NE Commerce Solved Paper 2015 with Proper Explanation. SLET NE General Paper 1 Solutions will also be available very soon on our website.

Questions in this post are based on memory which is submitted by various online readers. Reference of Assam SLET Exam books are also taken which compiling this solutions. This Solved Paper is Adjusted as per Assam SLET Commerce syllabus for 2023 exam.

SLET NE Commerce Solved Paper 2015

 

Also Read: Assam SLET (SLET NE) Solved Question Paper 2012 to 2023 [Commerce]

Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2012

Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2012 (Paper III)

Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2013

Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2014

Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2015

Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2017

Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2018

Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2019

Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2021

Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2022

Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2023

1. The components of political environment include:

(A) Legislative.

(B) Executive.

(C) Judiciary.

(D) All of the above.

Ans: (D) All of the above.

2. In a country, the rate of inflation is managed by:

(A) Supply of money.

(B) Promotion of exports.

(C) Decrease in capital formation.

(D) Increase in imports.

Ans: (A) Supply of money.

3. Which one item is not the part of India’s annual budget?

(A) Expenditure proposal.

(B) Tax proposal.

(C) Generation of capital formation.

(D) Major policy announcement.

Ans: (C) Generation of capital formation.

4. Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act of 1992 was implemented:

(A) For enhancing the volume of FDI.

(B) For regulating the FIIS.

(C) For facilitating imports in India.

(D) For generation of employment.

Ans: (C) For facilitating imports in India.

5. In which year PSUs were brought within the jurisdiction of the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction:

(A) 1985.

(B) 1991.

(C) 1995.

(D) 1998.

Ans: (B) 1991.

6. Match the following items of List I with the items of List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below it:

List-I

List-II

(a) Ethnocentric.

(b) Polycentric Approach.

(c) Regiocentric Approach.

(d) Geocentric Approach.

(1) Companies view foreign market as an extension of domestic market.

(2) Companies establish foreign subsidiary and empowers its executives.

(3) Subsidiaries consider regional environment for policy formulation.

(4) Companies view the entire world as a single country.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(1), (b)-(2), (c)-(3), (d)-(4).

(B) (a)-(2), (b)-(3), (c)-(1), (d)-(4).

(C) (a)-(4), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(1).

(D) (a)-(1), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(4).

Ans: (A) (a)-(1), (b)-(2), (c)-(3), (d)-(4).

7. Match the items of List I with the items of List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below it:

List-I

List-II

(a) Importing.

(b) Marketing.

(c) Sales expansion.

(d) Economic forces.

(1) Mode of International Business.

(2) Functions of International Business.

(3) Objectives of International Business.

(4) External Influence.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(3), (b)-(1), (c)-(4), (d)-(2).

(B) (a)-(4), (b)-(2), (c)-(3), (d)-(1).

(C) (a)-(1), (b)-(2), (c)-(3), (d)-(4).

(D) (a)-(4), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(1).

Ans: (C) (a)-(1), (b)-(2), (c)-(3), (d)-(4).

8. The W.T.O. is the embodiment of _______ results and the successor to _______.

(A) Uruguay Round, GATT.

(B) Bretton Woods, GATT.

(C) Uruguay Round, GARP.

(D) Bretton Woods, GAAP.

Ans: (A) Uruguay Round, GATT.

9. Which of the following is not a member of NAFTA:

(A) USA.

(B) CANADA.

(C) MAXICO.

(D) SPAIN.

Ans: (D) SPAIN.

10. Under the Bretton Woods system the only currency that remained convertible into Gold was:

(A) The British Pound.

(B) US Dollar.

(C) Japanese Yes.

(D) Chinese Yuan.

Ans: (B) US Dollar.

11. A historical record of where the funds came from and how these were utilized during the year is known as

(A) Funds flow statement.

(B) Cash flow statement.

(C) Cash budget.

(D) Capital budget.

Ans: (A) Funds flow statement.

12. To find debt equity ratio the denominator is

(A) Number of equity shares.

(B) Paid-up share capital.

(C) Reserves and surplus.

(D) Net worth.

Ans: (D) Net worth.

13. In ABC Analysis, ‘A’ stands:

(A) High Price’s goods.

(B) Lower quality goods.

(C) High volume goods.

(D) More quality goods.

Ans: (A) High Price’s goods.

14. Break-even means:

(A) Costs are more than the reserve.

(B) Revenue and cost are equal.

(C) Revenue is more than cost.

(D) None of the above.

Ans: (B) Revenue and cost are equal.

15. Indian Accounting Standard (AS 3) is related with:

(A) Depreciation Accounting.

(B) Segment Reporting.

(C) Cash Flow Statement.

(D) Disclosure of Accounting Policies.

Ans: (C) Cash Flow Statement.

16. In case of amalgamation in the nature of merger:

(A) Accounting is made by pooling of interest method.

(B) Accounting is made by purchase method.

(C) Accounting is made considering the same as slump sale.

(D) It is considered as hostile takeover.

Ans: (A) Accounting is made by pooling of interest method.

17. For AS-3 on ‘cash flow statements’ the respective

(A) Ind AS number is 3 and it is titled as ‘cash flow statements’.

(B) Ind AS number is 7 and it is titled as ‘statement of cash flows’.

(C) Ind AS number is 3 and it is titled as ‘statement of cash flows’.

(D) Ind AS number is 8 and it is titled as ‘cash flow statements’.

Ans: (B) Ind AS number is 7 and it is titled as ‘statement of cash flows’.

18. In an inflationary period, additional depreciation is required to be charged to cover the backlog of depreciation of gross current replacement cost of the assets that increase every year when accounts are prepared as per

(A) Cash System.

(B) Current Cost Accounting Method.

(C) Current Purchasing Power Method.

(D) Mercantile System.

Ans: (B) Current Cost Accounting Method.

19. Capital profit with reference to holding companies is

(A) Post acquisition profits of the subsidiary company.

(B) Profits earned by the subsidiary company upto the date of acquisition of shares by the holding company.

(C) Profits earned by the subsidiary company by unusual transactions.

(D) Profits made by holding company on sale of goods.

Ans: (B) Profits earned by the subsidiary company upto the date of acquisition of shares by the holding company.

20. A liability taken over by a partner at the time of dissolution is credited to

(A) Profit and Loss A/c.

(B) Partner’s Capital A/c.

(C) Realisation A/c.

(D) Revaluation A/c.

Ans: (B) Partner’s Capital A/c.

21. Find the correct matching of the items of List I with the items of List II:

List I

List II

(a) Normal profit.

(b) Economic profit.

(c) Accounting profit.

(1) Excess of total revenue over total explicit cost.

(2) Total revenue equals total cost.

(3) Excess of total revenue over total of explicit and implicit costs and a normal rate of return.

Codes:

(A) (1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(b).

(B) (1)-(b), (2)-(a), (3)-(c).

(C) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(c).

(D) (1)-(a), (2)-(c), (3)-(b).

Ans: (A) (1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(b).

22. Assertion (A): A monopoly firm’s revenue curve is downward sloping from left to right.

Reason (R): The monopoly firm does not enjoy the freedom both, to fix the price to be charge and the quantity to be sold according to its whims and fancies.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Ans: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

23. Product differentiation is:

(A) a form of price competition.

(B) a form of non-price competition.

(C) a form of price discrimination.

(D) none of the above.

Ans: (B) a form of non-price competition.

24. Match the following:

(a) Group behaviour.

(b) Duopoly.

(c) Oligopsony.

(d) Kinky Demand Curve.

(1) Two sellers.

(2) One buyer, one seller.

(3) Paul Sweezy.

(4) Prof. Chamberlin.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(2), (b)-(3), (c)-(1), (d)-(4).

(B) (a)-(4), (b)-(1), (c)-(2), (d)-(3).

(C) (a)-(1), (b)-(2), (c)-(3), (d)-(4).

(D) (a)-(2), (b)-(1), (c)-(4), (d)-(3).

Ans: (B) (a)-(4), (b)-(1), (c)-(2), (d)-(3).

25. Income elasticity of demand for inferior goods is

(A) Positive.

(B) Negative.

(C) Zero.

(D) Greater than one.

Ans: (B) Negative.

26. Implicit costs are:

(A) equal to total fixed cost.

(B) comprised entirely of variable cost.

(C) ‘payments’ for self-employed resources.

(D) always greater in the short-run than in the long-run.

Ans: (C) ‘payments’ for self-employed resources.

27. In the case of Giffen good:

(A) the substitution effect is more than the income effect.

(B) the substitution effect and income effect are same.

(C) the income effect is more than the substitution effect.

(D) the income and substitution effect cancel out each other.

Ans: (C) the income effect is more than the substitution effect.

28. When Average Revenue (AR) is constant, Marginal Revenue (MR) is

(A) More than AR.

(B) Less than AR.

(C) Equal to AR.

(D) Equal to zero.

Ans: (C) Equal to AR.

29. _______ refers to the determination of all goods and services by the interaction of the forces of demand and supply without any external interference.

(A) Product mechanism.

(B) Price mechanism.

(C) Cost mechanism.

(D) Revenue mechanism.

Ans: (B) Price mechanism.

30. The backward-bending labour supply curve is due to

(A) The shape of individual’s indifference curves between leisure and income.

(B) The fact that people’s response to a wage rise is just the same at high levies of income as it is at low levels of income.

(C) The fact that the income and substitution effect of an increase in the wage rate work in the same direction.

(D) The fact that the income and substitution effect of an decrease in the wage rate work in the same direction.

Ans: (A) The shape of individual’s indifference curves between leisure and income.

31. In case of ‘Zero interest Fully Convertible Debentures’, (ZFCD) return to debenture holders is available in the form of

(A) Difference between the issue price of ZFCD and the market price of converted share.

(B) Difference between the issue price of ZFCD and the redemption value given by the company.

(C) Interest over the life ZFCD.

(D) Interest + difference between the issue price of ZFCD and redemption value.

Ans: (A) Difference between the issue price of ZFCD and the market price of converted share.

32. In Miller-Orr model of cash management:

(A) The lower limit of cash balance is set by the management and the upper limit and return point for cash balance are derived.

(B) The lower limit and the upper limit of cash balance are pre-decided by the management and return point for cash balance is derived.

(C) The lower limit for cash balance and the return point for the cash balance are pre-decided by the management and upper limit for cash balance is derived.

(D) Both upper limit for cash balance and return point for cash balance are pre-decided by the management and lower limit for cash balance is derived.

Ans: (A) The lower limit of cash balance is set by the management and the upper limit and return point for cash balance are derived.

33. According to net income approach, the average cost of capital of firm:

(A) declines as debt-equity ratio increases.

(B) increases as debt-equity ratio increases.

(C) remains constant irrespective of change in debt-equity ratio.

(D) keeps on fluctuating with increase in debt-equity ratio.

Ans: (A) declines as debt-equity ratio increases.

34. Match the following:

(1) Convertible Debentures.

(2) Secured Debentures.

(3) Interest on the Debentures.

(4) Irredeemable Debentures.

(i) Holders have the right to recover their money from the sale of Assets.

(ii) Deducted from the profits of the company.

(iii) Permanent Liability on the company.

(iv) The holders of such debentures are given the option to exchange them for share.

Codes:

(A) (1)-(i), (2)-(ii), (3)-(iii), (4)-(iv).

(B) (1)-(ii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(iii).

(C) (1)-(iv), (2)-(i), (3)-(iii), (4)-(ii).

(D) (1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i).

Ans: (C) (1)-(iv), (2)-(i), (3)-(iii), (4)-(ii).

35. The variability of EPS caused by the use of financial leverage is called:

(A) Operating risk.

(B) External risk.

(C) Financial risk.

(D) Internal risk.

Ans: (C) Financial risk.

36. The returns foregone in the next best investment option is called:

(A) Sunk cost.

(B) Marginal cost.

(C) Opportunity cost.

(D) Foregone cost.

Ans: (C) Opportunity cost.

37. In case where the available funds for investment are lower than the acceptable investment (after applying the appraisal criteria) the suitable additional appraisal criteria, for final decision-making will be:

(A) NPV.

(B) Payback.

(C) ARR.

(D) Profitability index.

Ans: (D) Profitability index.

38. The working capital requirements of the company even at the lowest level of its sales cycle is called:

(A) Gross working capital.

(B) Permanent working capital.

(C) Net working capital.

(D) Fluctuating working capital.

Ans: (B) Permanent working capital.

39. According to Walter model, a firm should have 100% dividend payout ratio when:

(A) r = ke.

(B) r < ke.

(C) r > ke.

(D) None of the above.

Ans: (B) r < ke.

40. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below it:

List-I

List-II

(1) Net Income approach.

(2) Net operating income approach.

(3) Traditional theory.

(4) M.M. approach.

(a) Ke is rising with increase in debt.

(b) Ke and Kd remain constant irrespective of proportion of debt.

(c) Arbitrage process.

(d) Optimal capital structure.

Codes:

(A) (1)-(b), (2)-(a), (3)-(d), (4)-(c).

(B) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(c), (4)-(d).

(C) (1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(b), (4)-(a).

(D) (1)-(d), (2)-(c), (3)-(a), (4)-(b).

Ans: (A) (1)-(b), (2)-(a), (3)-(d), (4)-(c).

41. The ‘cause and effect’ relationship between the two variables is calculated by applying one of the following statistical methods. Which one is that?

(A) Correlation Analysis.

(B) Regression Analysis.

(C) Skewness.

(D) ANOVA.

Ans: (B) Regression Analysis.

42. Here is incomplete statement:

“Random sampling” is one of the important technique of data collection. This technique is also known as _______.

Which one of the following will correctly complete it?

(A) Normal sampling.

(B) Poisson sampling.

(C) Probability sampling.

(D) Non-systematic sampling.

Ans: (C) Probability sampling.

Untitled 5

44. Given: Sum of squares between the columns = 304.22.Degree of freedom = 2. What will be the F-value under the method of Analysis of Variance?

(A) 9.85.

(B) 19.70.

(C) 10.85.

(D) 20.70.

Ans: (A) 9.85.

45. Type-I error is defined as the probability to:

(A) accept a hypothesis when it is true.

(B) accept a hypothesis when it is false.

(C) reject a hypothesis when it is false.

(D) reject a hypothesis when it is true.

Ans: (D) reject a hypothesis when it is true.

46. Which of the following is not a standard type of sampling?

(A) Stratified sampling.

(B) Simple cluster sampling.

(C) Cluster sampling.

(D) Systematic sampling.

Ans: (B) Simple cluster sampling.

47. Which of the following statements, on testing of a hypothesis is always true?

(A) When the null hypothesis is rejected at 5% level of significance, it is always rejected at 1% level also.

(B) When the null hypothesis is rejected at 1% level of significance, it is also rejected at 5% level also.

(C) When the null hypothesis is not rejected at 1%, it is rejected at 5% level of significance.

(D) No definite assertion can be made.

Ans: (B) When the null hypothesis is rejected at 1% level of significance, it is also rejected at 5% level also.

48. Which of the following software has applications in both Mathematics and Statistics?

(A) SPSS.

(B) SAS.

(C) R.

(D) None of the above.

Ans: (D) None of the above.

49. The risk of return from investment can be measured through

(A) Variability of rates of return from average rate of return as derived in the form of standard deviation.

(B) Variability of rates of return from average rate of return as derived in the form of median.

(C) Comparison of return from investment with industry returns.

(D) Comparison of return from investment with competitor’s return.

Ans: (A) Variability of rates of return from average rate of return as derived in the form of standard deviation.

50. In a Unimodal and symmetrical distribution, the relationship between averages is like this

(A) Mean > Median > Mode.

(B) Mean < Median < Mode.

(C) Mean = Median = Mode.

(D) Mean < Median > Mode.

Ans: (C) Mean = Median = Mode.

51. PEST analysis

(A) a checklist to ask for political, economic, strategic or technological developments can influence an industry and a company.

(B) a board framework to help managers understand the environment in which their business operates.

(C) a checklist for forecasting political, economic, strategic or technological factors.

(D) a framework for strategic analysis for internal and external environment.

Ans: (B) a board framework to help managers understand the environment in which their business operates.

52. Assertion (A): Management is a continuous process.

Reason (R): Managers first plan, then organise and finally perform the function of controlling.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Ans: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

53. Match the following:

(a) Philosophy of management.

(b) Scientific management.

(c) General and industrial management.

(d) The practice of management.

(1) Oliver Sheldon.

(2) Peter F. Drucker.

(3) F.W. Taylor.

(4) Henry Fayol.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(1), (b)-(3), (c)-(4), (d)-(2).

(B) (a)-(1), (b)-(2), (c)-(3), (d)-(4).

(C) (a)-(4), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(1).

(D) (a)-(3), (b)-(4), (c)-(1), (d)-(2).

Ans: (A) (a)-(1), (b)-(3), (c)-(4), (d)-(2).

54. Arranging in an order from lowest to highest, what are Maslow’s five classes of needs?

(A) Social Esteem – Physiological – Safety – Self-actualization.

(B) Physiological – safety – Social – self-actualization – Esteem.

(C) Physiological – safety – Social – esteem – Self-actualization.

(D) Self-actualization – Esteem – safety – social – physiological.

Ans: (C) Physiological – safety – Social – esteem – Self-actualization.

55. Match the items of List I with the items of List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

(Techniques of Scientific Management)

List II

(Features)

(a) Standardization and simplification.

 

(b) Scientific task selling.

 

(c) Functional foremanship.

 

(d) Differential place rate plan.

(1) It is essential to set the standards task which an average
worker should be during a working day.

(2) Under this, there are two work rates, one is lower and another is higher.

(3) The management must carry out work study is standardise and simplify work in order to increase efficiency.

(4) Its purpose is to improve the quality of super-vision of workers by employing some specialists.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(3), (b)-(1), (c)-(4), (d)-(2)

(B) (a)-(4), (b)-(1), (c)-(2), (d)-(3).

(B) (a)-(4), (b)-(3), (c)-(1), (d)-(2).

(C) (a)-(3), (b)-(4), (c)-(1), (d)-(2).

Ans: (A) (a)-(3), (b)-(1), (c)-(4), (d)-(2)

56. Training is a:

(A) Current process.

(B) Temporary process.

(C) Regular process.

(D) Continuous process.

Ans: (D) Continuous process.

57. Match the following:

List I

(Concepts)

List II

(Objectives)

(a) Wages and Salary Administration.

(b) Succession Planning.

(c) Fringe Benefit.

(d) High Morale.

(1) Engage the leadership in supporting the development of high
potential leaders.

(2) To reduce employee grievance.

(3) To retain the present employees.

(4) To improve human relations.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(4), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(1).

(B) (a)-(2), (b)-(1), (c)-(4), (d)-(3).

(C) (a)-(3), (b)-(1), (c)-(4), (d)-(2).

(D) (a)-(4), (b)-(1), (c)-(2), (d)-(3).

Ans: (C) (a)-(3), (b)-(1), (c)-(4), (d)-(2).

58. Strike undertaken without the consent of the unions is called:

(A) General Strike.

(B) Sympathetic Strike.

(C) Unofficial Strike.

(D) Bumper Strike.

Ans: (C) Unofficial Strike.

59. How can accidents be reduced in industry?

(A) By proper training.

(B) By installation of safety equipments.

(C) By safety programme.

(D) All of the above.

Ans: (D) All of the above.

60. Organisational structure primarily refers to:

(A) how resources are allocated.

(B) how activities are co-ordinated and controlled.

(C) the location of departments and office space.

(D) the policy statements developed by the firm.

Ans: (B) how activities are co-ordinated and controlled.

61. The National Bank for Rural and Agricultural Development:

(A) is an autonomous financial institution.

(B) is an institution providing re-finance facility for agricultural credit.

(C) provides re-finance for micro-finance.

(D) all of the above.

Ans: (D) all of the above.

62. The capital adequacy norms for Banks according to Basle III cover:

(A) Credit risk and default risk.

(B) Credit risk, interest rate risk and market risk.

(C) Market risk only.

(D) Interest rate risk only.

Ans: (B) Credit risk, interest rate risk and market risk.

63. Which instrument is used most often by the Reserve Bank of India to control liquidity in the short-run?

(A) Interest Rate.

(B) Base Rate.

(C) Repo Rate.

(D) Bank Rate.

Ans: (C) Repo Rate.

64. The Industrial Finance Corporation of India was set up to:

(A) provide finance to small scale industries.

(B) provide medium and long-term finance to large industries.

(C) provide short-term finance to large scale industries.

(D) provide long-term finance to small scale industries.

Ans: (B) provide medium and long-term finance to large industries.

65. Match the following:

List A: Institution

List B: Year of Establishment

(1) Imperial Bank of India.

(2) Reserve Bank of India.

(3) State Bank of India.

(4) Industrial Development Bank of India.

(a) 1935.

(b) 1955.

(c) 1921.

(d) 1964.

Code:

(A) (1)-(a), (2)-(c), (3)-(d), (4)-(b).

(B) (1)-(d), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4)-(c).

(C) (1)-(a), (2)-(d), (3)-(c), (4)-(b).

(D) (1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4)-(d).

Ans: (D) (1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4)-(d).

67. Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) The Industrial Finance Corporation of India provides long and medium term financing.

(B) The Industrial Development Bank of India re-discounts commercial bills.

(C) The Reserve Bank of India invests in the equity market.

(D) The State Bank of India gives loans to small businesses.

Ans: (C) The Reserve Bank of India invests in the equity market.

68. The term ‘Exchange rate regime’ refers to

(A) The mechanism for determining exchange rate at a point in time.

(B) The procedure for determining exchange rate at a point in time.

(C) The institutional framework for determining exchange rate at a point in time.

(D) The mechanism, procedures and institutional framework for determining exchange rates at a point in time and change in them over time.

Ans: (D) The mechanism, procedures and institutional framework for determining exchange rates at a point in time and change in them over time.

69. The Committee appointed by SEBI in the year 2003 for suggesting how best to future improve the Corporate Governance (CG) practices was:

(A) National Committee on Corporate Governance.

(B) The Kumarmangalam Birla Committee.

(C) The Ambani Committee.

(D) The Narayan Murthy Committee.

Ans: (D) The Narayan Murthy Committee.

70. Statement I: RBI occupies the central position because it regulates and controls the credit supply of the nation.

Statement II: Indian Money Market is still unorganised money market.

After reading these two statements select the correct answer from the following:

(A) Both I and II are true.

(B) Only I is true and II is false.

(C) Only II is true and I is false.

(D) In fact, both I and I are false.

Ans: (B) Only I is true and II is false.

71. Ethnocentric firms are those whose orientation is:

(A) Compatible with host country marketing.

(B) Compatible with home country marketing.

(C) Compatible with no specific country.

(D) Compatible with a region.

Ans: (B) Compatible with home country marketing.

72. In which of the following concepts the marketers identify the hierarchy of attributes which guides the consumer decision-making in order to understand different competitive forces and its formation?

(A) Market Myopia.

(B) Market Portioning.

(C) Marketing Myopia.

(D) Meta Markets.

Ans: (B) Market Portioning.

73. The practice of tailoring products and marketing programmes to the needs and wants of specific individuals and local customer groups is called as:

(A) Market Targeting.

(B) Target Marketing.

(C) Integrated Marketing.

(D) Micro Marketing.

Ans: (D) Micro Marketing.

74. Companies using call centers for receiving calls from customers is described by the following:

(A) In-bound Tele-marketing.

(B) Out-bound Tele-marketing.

(C) Advertising.

(D) In-bound and out-bounding tele-marketing.

Ans: (B) Out-bound Tele-marketing.

75. Which of the following is not the stage of product cycle?

(A) Introduction.

(B) Growth.

(C) Market segmentation.

(D) Decline.

Ans: (C) Market segmentation.

76. Marketing is a human activity directed at satisfying need and wants through exchange process, is the statement of:

(A) Cundiff and Still.

(B) Kenneth Andrew.

(C) Philip Kotler.

(D) Kishwar S. Kan.

Ans: (C) Philip Kotler.

77. Magazines and Journals are suitable for advertising products of _______ type purchased by only a particular section of society.

(A) Special.

(B) Specific.

(C) General.

(D) None of the above.

Ans: (B) Specific.

78. Role of Marketing has become vital because of changes are increased:

(A) Technology.

(B) Competition.

(C) Both (A) and (B).

(D) None of the above.

Ans: (C) Both (A) and (B).

79. Informing the buyers of new brand and new package is the _______ of sales promotion.

(A) Objective.

(B) Method.

(C) Application.

(D) None of the above.

Ans: (A) Objective.

80. Producers of garments often organise _______ shoes to promote their products.

(A) Charity.

(B) Orchestra.

(C) Fashion.

(D) Movie.

Ans: (C) Fashion.

81. Under the Industrial Disputes (Amendment) Act, 2010, the total number of members of the Grievance Redressal Committee shall not exceed:

(A) Four.

(B) Six.

(C) Ten.

(D) Twelve.

Ans: (B) Six.

82. Minimum Wages Act was enacted in India in:

(A) 1947.

(B) 1948.

(C) 1949.

(D) 1950.

Ans: (B) 1948.

83. Section 31 of the Competition Act, 2002 deals with

(A) Appearance before commission.

(B) Inquiry into combination by commission.

(C) Orders of commission on certain combination.

(D) Rectification of orders.

Ans: (C) Orders of commission on certain combination.

84. Under the Companies Act, 2013, companies with how much net worth have to spend on CSR?

(A) Rs. 100 crores.

(B) Rs. 200 crores.

(C) Rs. 400 crores.

(D) Rs. 500 crores.

Ans: (D) Rs. 500 crores.

85. Which of the following is not a clause of Memorandum of Association?

(A) Situation.

(B) Capital.

(C) Subscription.

(D) Directors.

Ans: (D) Directors.

86. How many designated partners are required in LLP?

(A) Seven designated partners.

(B) At least two designated partners.

(C) More than two partners.

(D) At least seven designated partners.

Ans: (B) At least two designated partners.

87. In the Company Act, 2013 under definitions sub-clause 45; “Government Company means any company in which not less than _______ percent of the paid up share capital is held by the Central Government or by any State Government or Governments or partly by the Central and partly by one or more State Governments and includes a company which is a subsidiary company of such a Government company.

(A) 41%.

(B) 45%.

(C) 49%.

(D) 51%.

Ans: (D) 51%.

88. The “Official Liquidator” means an official liquidator appointed under sub-section (1) of section _______ of the Company Act, 2013.

(A) 351.

(B) 359.

(C) 361.

(D) 369.

Ans: (B) 359.

89. The omission of the creditor to sue within the period of limitation:

(A) Discharges the surety.

(B) Does not discharge the surety.

(C) Makes the contract of guarantee void.

(D) Makes the contract of guarantee illegal.

Ans: (B) Does not discharge the surety.

90. Flaw in capacity to may arise from _______.

(A) Minority.

(B) Lack of free consent.

(C) Lack of consideration.

(D) Absence of legal formalities.

Ans: (A) Minority.

91. Depreciation allowed on Intangible Assets (know-how, patents, copy rights, trademarks) for the A.Y. 2019-20 is:

(A) 5%.

(B) 10%.

(C) 20%.

(D) 25%.

Ans: (D) 25%.

92. GST rate for raw diamonds is passed at:

(A) 3%.

(B) 1%.

(C) 0.25%.

(D) 0.05%.

Ans: (C) 0.25%.

93. The value of rent free accommodation where the population exceeds 25 lakhs and accommodation is owned by employer:

(A) 10% of salary.

(B) 7.5% of salary.

(C) 15% of salary.

(D) 5% of salary.

Ans: (C) 15% of salary.

94. Consider the following problem relating to a let out house property.

Municipal Value

Fair Rent

Standard Rent (Under the Rent Control Act)

Annual Rent Received

Rs.70,000

Rs. 78,000

Rs. 72,000

Rs. 75,000

The gross annual value of the property will be:

(A) Rs. 78,000.

(B) Rs. 72,000.

(C) Rs. 75,000.

(D) Rs. 70,000.

Ans: (C) Rs. 75,000.

95. Long term capital asset means:

(A) Capital Assets held for more than 12 months.

(B) Capital Assets held for less than 12 months.

(C) Capital Assets held for more than 36 months.

(D) Capital Assets held for less than 36 months.

Ans: (C) Capital Assets held for more than 36 months.

96. Interest on Borrowed capital of a self-occupied property acquired (or) constructed after 1st April, 1999 (or) for renewals (or) repairs is deductible for the A.Y. 2019-20 is upto:

(A) Rs. 30,000.

(B) Rs. 1,00,000.

(C) Rs. 1,50,000.

(D) Rs. 2,00,000.

Ans: (D) Rs. 2,00,000.

97. What is the maximum rate which can be imposed by the State Government under SGST Act?

(A) 28%.

(B) 20%.

(C) 40%.

(D) 24%.

Ans: (B) 20%.

98. Long-term Capital Gain on listed equity shares, units equity oriented mutual funds (or) business trust is exempted for the A.Y. 2019-20 u/s 112A is upto:

(A) Rs. 2,00,000.

(B) Rs. 3,00,000.

(C) Rs. 1,00,000.

(D) Rs. 50,000.

Ans: (C) Rs. 1,00,000.

99. Children Education Allowance given for Children’s Education in India the amount exempt for the A.Y. 2019-20 is limited to:

(A) Rs. 300 per child per month upto maximum of two children.

(B) Rs. 200 per child per month upto maximum of two children.

(C) Rs. 100 per child per month upto maximum of two children.

(D) Rs. 500 per child per month upto maximum of two children.

Ans: (C) Rs. 100 per child per month upto maximum of two children.

100. The value of unfurnished Rent Free Accommodation owned by the employer of private sector employees where the population exceeds 25 lakhs, the basis of valuation for the A. Y. 2019-20 is:

(A) 10% of salary.

(B) 7.5% of salary.

(C) 20% of salary.

(D) 15% of salary.

Ans: (D) 15% of salary.

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