SLET NE Commerce Solved Paper III 2012

Assam SLET Solved Question Paper Commerce

[Time: 1 hour]

[Maximum Marks: 100]

Note: This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (02) marks. All the questions are compulsory.

In this post you will get SLET NE Commerce Solved Paper III 2012 with Proper Explanation. SLET NE General Paper 1 Solutions will also be available very soon on our website.

Assam SLET Exam is conducted every year by SLET Commission NE Region. Question Papers of Assam SLET Exam is tough as compared to UGC NET Exam question paper. Syllabus of Assam SLET (SLET NE) Exam and UGC NET exam is similar. You can refer Assam SLET Commerce syllabus for 2023 here.

SLET NE Commerce Solved Paper III 2012

Also Read: Assam SLET (SLET NE) Solved Question Paper 2012 to 2023 [Commerce]

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Assam SLET (SLET NE) Commerce Solved Question Paper 2023

1. Following are two statements – one Assertion (Ass) and the other Reason (R). Find the correct answer from the codes below:

Assertion (Ass): The balance of trade includes only those transactions arising out of the exports and imports of only the visible items like goods.

Reason (R): While balance of payments takes into account the exchange of both visible and invisible items like various services, it manifests better picture of a nation’s external balance.

Codes:

(A) Ass is correct but R is wrong.

(B) Ass is wrong but R is correct.

(D) Both Ass and R are correct but R does not explain the Ass correctly.

Ans:

2. Comparative cost theory was propounded by

(A) Adam Smith.

(B) Ricardo.

(D) Marshall.

Ans:

3. Customs duty levied according to the value of goods is known as ________ duty.

(A) Excise.

(B) Ad-valorem.

(D) None of these.

Ans:

4. Match the items in List – I with the items given in List – II.

List I

List II

(1) Specific purpose Vehicle (SPV).

(2) Geographical indication (GI).

(3) Purchasing power parity (PPP).

(4) Volatility and risk management.

(a) Intellectual property rights (IPR).

(b) Joint Venture.

(d) Exchange rate determination.

Codes:

(A) (1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(d), (4)-(b).

(B) (1)-(b), (2)-(a), (3)-(d), (4)-(c).

(D) (1)-(d), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4)-(c).

Ans:

5. The official appointed by government to stay at foreign country to oversee the nation’s commercial interest is the

(A) Consul.

(B) Foreign Secretary.

(D) President of Chamber of Commerce.

Ans:

6. Match the items in List – I with the items given in List – II.

List I

List II

(1) Brettonwoods Conference 1944.

(2) SDR (Special Drawing Rights)

(3) IMF Tranche Facility.

(4) Soft loan window.

(a) International liquidity.

(b) IBRD, IMF.

(d) BOP deficit of member nations.

Codes:

(A) (1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(a), (4)-(b).

(B) (1)-(b), (2)-(c), (3)-(d), (4)-(a).

(D) (1)-(b), (2)-(a), (3)-(d), (4)-(c).

Ans:

7. Convertibility of the rupee implies:

(A) Being able to convert rupee notes into gold.

(B) Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice-versa.

(D) Developing an international market for currencies in India.

Ans:

8. World Trade Organisation was set up in the year

(A) 1994.

(B) 1995.

(D) None of the above.

Ans:

9. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below.

List I

List II

(a) Free trade area.

(b) Customs Union.

(d) Economic Union.

(1) No restriction on trade.

(2) Trade is free and no custom duty.

(3) No custom duties on members.

(4) Advanced stage of integration.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(2), (b)-(1), (c)-(4), (d)-(3).

(B) (a)-(1), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(4).

(D) (a)-(3), (b)-(4), (c)-(2), (d)-(1).

Ans:

10. Which one of the following is not a function of leader in an organisation?

(A) Motivating employees.

(B) Fixing the remuneration package of employees.

(D) Selecting most effective communication channel.

Ans:

11. Legitimate power occurs when

(A) People perceive that the leader has the legal or traditional right to determine their behaviour.

(B) Influence generally exists between closely related persons.

(D) None of the above.

Ans:

12. A performance rating system is:

(A) A grade or score relating to overall performance.

(B) Details of the extent to which work objectives were met.

(D) None of the above.

Ans:

13. If a local collective agreement on pay and conditions is in place, who benefits?

(A) Only those employees who are members of the trade union.

(B) All employees regardless of union membership.

(D) All employees regardless of union membership who are in the grade of work covered by the agreement.

Ans:

14. Match the items of List – I against the items given in List – II.

List I (Leadership Type)

List II (Model)

(1) Participative.

(2) Contingency.

(3) Bahavioural.

(4) Situational.

(a) Vroom and Yetton’s Normative Model.

(b) The managerial gird.

(d) Fredler’s Lease Preferred Co-worker (LPC) Theory.

Codes:

(A) (1)-(b), (2)-(d), (3)-(c), (4)-(a).

(B) (1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4)-(d).

(D) (1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(b), (4)-(a).

Ans:

15. Brainstorming is a training technique which can be clubbed together with

(A) Skill training.

(B) Creativity training.

(D) Team training.

Ans:

16. In case of separation of employees, which of the following cost brings benefit to the organisation?

(A) Training cost.

(B) Reduce labour cost.

(D) Recruitment cost.

Ans:

17. An issue of female preference in an advertisement for recruitment of air hostess is technically covered by

(A) Job description.

(B) Job design.

(D) Job specification.

Ans:

18. Which of the following is not a non-parametric test?

(A) Chi-square Test.

(B) One Sample Runs Test.

(D) T-test.

Ans:

19. Which of the following is of Type I error?

(A) The hypothesis is true but our test rejects it.

(B) The hypothesis is false but our test accepts it.

(D) The hypothesis is false and out test rejects it.

Ans:

20. There are two statements viz. Assertion (Ass) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer code:

Assertion (Ass): The value of Pearson’s coefficient of correlation lies between +1 and – 1.

Reason (R): Pearson’s coefficient of correlation is a mathematical method of calculating relation.

Codes:

(A) Both Ass and R are true and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

(B) Both Ass and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of Ass.

(D) Ass is false but R is true.

Ans:

21. Which one is not the property of normal distribution?

(A) In Normal distribution Mean = Median = Mode.

(B) The quartiles are equidistant form mean.

(D) The total area of a normal curve is 2.

Ans:

22. Which one of the following factors cause non sampling errors?

(A) Faulty selection & sample.

(B) Faulty demarcation of sampling units.

(D) Publication errors.

Ans:

23. Match the List – I against List – II and select the correct answer code.

List I

List II

(1) Median.

(2) Standard Deviation.

(3) Coefficient of variation.

(4) Rank Correlation.

(a) Spearman.

(b) Measure of central value.

(d) Relative measure of dispersion.

Codes:

(A) (1)-(a), (2)-(c), (3)-(d), (4)-(b).

(B) (1)-(b), (2)-(d), (3)-(c), (4)-(a).

(D) (1)-(a), (2)-(d), (3)-(b), (4)-(c).

Ans:

24. Which one of the following is the odd one?

(A) Law of diminishing Marginal Utility.

(B) Law of substitution.

(D) Law of variable proportions.

Ans:

25. In the equation: Price elasticity of demand =

The top line of the fraction should read:

(A) Proportionate change in marginal demand.

(B) Increase in quantity demanded.

(D) Proportionate change in quantity demanded.

Ans:

26. All of the following curves are u shaped except

(A) The Average Variable Cost curve.

(B) The Average Fixed Cost curve.

(D) The Marginal Cost curve.

Ans:

27. National Income is a

(A) Flow concept.

(B) Stock concept.

(D) None of the above.

Ans:

28. The total utility is maximum when

(A) Marginal utility is zero.

(B) Average utility is the highest.

(D) Marginal utility is equal to Average utility.

Ans:

29. Cross elasticity of demand between Tea and Coffee is

(A) Positive.

(B) Negative.

(D) None of the above.

Ans:

30. Below are two statements – one Assertion (Ass) and the other Reason (R). Find the correct answer from the codes below:

Assertion (Ass): Standard cost is the predetermined cost based on technical estimates for materials, labour and overhead for a selected period of time.

Reason (R): Standard costing compares the standard cost of each product or service with the actual costs, to determine the efficiency of the operation, so that any remedial action may be taken immediately.

Codes:

(A) Both Ass and R are correct and reasoning correctly explains the assertion.

(B) Both Ass and R are correct but R does not explain the Ass correctly.

(D) Ass is wrong but R is correct.

Ans:

31. Following are the information of XYZ Ltd.

Current Ratio = 1.4.

Acid Test Ratio = 1.2.

Current Liabilities = Rs. 1,600.

Inventory turnover Ratio = 8.

The Sales of XYZ would be:

(A) Rs. 4,160.

(B) Rs. 2,560.

(D) Rs. 320.

Ans:

32. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct match using the code given.

List I

List II

(a) Wasting Assets.

(b) Fictitious Assets.

(d) Intangible Assets.

(1) Cash balance.

(2) Generators.

(3) Patent and trade marks.

(4) Preliminary expenses.

(5) Gas wells.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(4), (b)-(5), (c)-(2), (d)-(3).

(B) (a)-(1), (b)-(5), (c)-(3), (d)-(2).

(D) (a)-(2), (b)-(3), (c)-(1), (d)-(4).

Ans:

33. Below are two statements – one Assertion (Ass) and the other Reason (R). Find the correct answer from the codes below:

Assertion (Ass): It is recognised in marginal costing that sales – variable cost = contribution; contribution – fixed cost = profit.

Reason (R): Concept of contribution is not relevant for break even analysis and other management decision making.

Codes:

(A) Both Ass and R are correct and reasoning correctly explains the assertion.

(B) Both Ass and R are correct but R does not explain the Ass correctly.

(D) Ass is wrong but R is correct.

Ans:

34. Financial analysis of accounting data is not usually carried out from the view point of:

(A) Financial Institutions.

(B) Shareholders.

(D) Statutory agencies.

Ans:

35. While preparing Cash Flow Statement Cash receipts from disposal of fixed assets is shown under:

(A) Financing Activities.

(B) Operating Activities.

(D) None of the above.

Ans:

36. The process that turns marketing strategies and plans into marketing actions, in order to accomplish strategic marketing objectives, is called:

(A) Marketing Strategy.

(B) Marketing Control.

(D) Marketing Implementation.

Ans:

37. There are a number of key influences on the selection of distribution strategy. Which of the following is generally recognised as the key influence?

1. Buyer Behaviour.

2. Producer’s Need.

3. Product Type.

Codes:

(A) Only 1.

(B) Only 1 and 2.

(D) 1, 2 and 3.

Ans:

38. Introducing new products to existing markets is an example of:

(A) Concentric diversification.

(B) Horizontal diversification.

(D) Conglomerate diversification.

Ans:

39. Some consumers of service are dissatisfied even though the supplier offers a relatively high standard of service. The reason is:

(A) Price is too low.

(B) There are two few tangible cues to assess the service.

(D) Consumers have a high level of expectation.

Ans:

40. There are two statements viz. Assertion (Ass) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (Ass): A company’s positioning and differentiation strategy must change as the product, market and competition change over the product life cycle.

Reason (R): Products have a limited life and product sales pass through different challenges at different paints of time.

Codes:

(A) Both Ass and R is true and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

(B) Both Ass and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation.

(D) Ass is false but R is true.

Ans:

41. Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) Price lining is found more commonly among retailers.

(B) Penetration pricing is intended to capture the market.

(D) None of the above.

Ans:

42. A brand may be:

(A) A name.

(B) A symbol or design.

(D) All of the above.

Ans:

43. There are two statements viz. Assertion (Ass) and Reason (R). Choose the answer
from the codes given below:

Assertion (Ass): Hand to mouth buying will lead to increase in the cost.

Reason (R): Benefits of large scale buying will not be available in case of hand to mouth buying.

Codes:

(A) Both Ass and R are true and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

(B) Both Ass and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of Ass.

(D) Ass is false but R is true.

Ans:

44. Read the Assertion (Ass) and Reason (R) given below and select the correct combination from the codes given below:

Assertion (Ass): India exports garments.

Reason (R): Garment industry is labour intensive and India has abundant supply of cheap labour.

Codes:

(A) Both Ass and R are correct.

(B) Ass is correct but R is incorrect.

(D) Both Ass and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

Ans:

45. Read the Assertion (Ass) and Reason (R) given below and select the correct combination from the codes given below:

Assertion (Ass): Consumer Protection Act seeks to protect the interest of the consumer from unfair trade practices.

Reason (R): Indian consumers are not sufficient conscious about the Act and hence cannot get the advantages.

Codes:

(A) Both Ass and R are correct.

(B) Ass is correct but R is not correct.

(D) Both Ass and R are incorrect.

Ans:

46. Read the following statements and examine whether the statements are true or false. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) Political environment of business refers to the different aspects of governance that have economic impact on business.

(2) Economic environment refers to all the economic policies of the Government.

(3) Technological environment do not have considerable influence on business.

(4) Social and cultural environment refers to the influence exercised by trade unions.

Codes:

(A) (1)-True, (2)-True, (3)-True, (4)-False.

(B) (1)-True, (2)-True, (3)-False, (4)-False.

(D) (1)-False, (2)-False, (3)-True, (4)-True.

Ans:

47. Match List – I with List – II selecting the correct match using the codes given:

List I

List II

(a) Economic environment of business.

(b) Economic reform in India.

(d) Foreign Exchange Management Act.

(1) Companies Act.

(2) Planning in India.

(3) Current account and capital account convertibility of rupee.

(4) 1991.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(1), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(4).

(B) (a)-(2), (b)-(1), (c)-(3), (d)-(4).

(D) (a)-(2), (b)-(4), (c)-(1), (d)-(3).

Ans:

48. Find the correct answer from the alternatives given below:

A mixed economy is necessarily an economy which is,

(A) Planned.

(B) Organised.

(D) None of the above.

Ans:

49. Find the correct answer from the alternatives given below:

Focus on social environment is related to –

(A) Unity of command.

(B) Human relations.

(D) All of the above.

Ans:(B) Human relations.

50. Given below are to statements one labeled as Assertion (Ass) and the other as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the given codes.

Assertion (Ass): A robust currency and credit system is essential for securing monetary stability of the country.

Reason (R): The Reserve Bank of India as the Central Bank of the country regulates the money supply through its monetary and credit policy.

Codes:

(A) Both Ass and R are true and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

(B) Ass is true but R is false.

(D) Ass is false but R is true.

Ans:

51. Which of the following is not a part of Tier-I capital of a banking company?

(A) Paid-up capital.

(B) Statutory reserves.

(D) Revaluation reserves.

Ans:

52. Principal functions of banks are:

(A) Accepting deposits.

(B) Lending and investing.

(D) All of the above.

Ans:

53. Objectives of Know Your Customers (KYC) are:

(A) To ensure appropriate customer identification.

(B) To monitor transactions of suspicious nature.

(D) Only (A) and (B).

Ans:

54. State whether the following statements are ‘True’ or ‘False’ by choosing the correct answer from the codes showing the correct combination of answers given below:

(a) Installation of ATM at the branch premises of bank requires RBI’s permission.

(b) A customer can withdraw cash from his account via interest banking.

(d) A customer can obtain a summary of statement of his account from the bank’s ATM.

Codes:

(A) (a)-True, (b)-True, (c)-False, (d)-False.

(B) (a)-False, (b)-False, (c)-True, (d)-True.

(D) (a)-False, (b)-True, (c)-False, (d)-True.

Ans:

55. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List I

List II

(a) Planning.

(b) Staffing.

(d) Controlling.

(1) Training.

(2) Forecasting.

(3) Evaluating.

(4) Motivating.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(3), (b)-(1), (c)-(4), (d)-(2).

(B) (a)-(3), (b)-(4), (c)-(1), (d)-(2).

(D) (a)-(2), (b)-(4), (c)-(1), (d)-(3).

Ans:

56. The process of grouping activities into units for the purpose of administration may be referred as:

(A) Decentralisation.

(B) Co-ordination.

(D) Departmentalisation.

Ans:

57. Co-ordination can be best achieved through:

(A) Direct personal contract.

(B) Reciprocity.

(D) All of these.

Ans:

58. Which of the following is/are true in case of line organisation?

(A) The lines of authority and responsibility are definite.

(B) It is economical as it does not employ expert staff personnel.

(D) None of these.

Ans:

59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct match using the codes given below:

List I

List II

(a) Mc Gregor.

(b) Herzberg.

(d) Alderfer.

(1) Motivation Hygiene theory.

(2) Theory X and theory Y.

(3) ERG Theory.

(4) Need Theories.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(2), (b)-(1), (c)-(4), (d)-(3).

(B) (a)-(1), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(4).

(D) (a)-(4), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(1).

Ans:

60. Which one of the following is not a form of autocratic leadership?

(A) Incompetent.

(B) Strict.

(D) Free rein.

Ans:

61. Choose the correct option:

Current assets are twice the current liabilities. If the working capital is Rs. 60,000 current assets would be:

(A) Rs. 60,000.

(B) Rs. 1,00,000.

(D) Rs. 1,10,000.

Ans:

62. The assumptions of M-M hypothesis does not include:

(A) Capital markets are imperfect.

(B) Investors have homogeneous expectations.

(D) The dividend payout ratio is 100 per cent.

Ans:

63. Working capital cycle involves the following:

(1) Acquisition of raw materials.

(2) Finished goods.

(3) Receivables.

(4) Cash.

(5) Work-in-Progress.

Which of the sequence is correct?

(A) (4) (3) (1) (5) (2).

(B) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5).

(D) (4) (1) (2) (3) (5).

Ans:

64. In formulating dividend theory both Walter and Gordon assumed three categories of firms except:

(A) Normal firms.

(B) Growth firms.

(D) Liquidating firms.

Ans:

65. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to share split?

(A) Share split increases the number of shares.

(B) Share split results in increase in the value of shares.

(D) All of the above statements.

Ans:

66. The correct measure of degree of combined leverage includes the following except:

Screenshot 20220817 1909522

67. Acid-test Ratio is also known as:

(A) Quick Ratio.

(B) Debt Ratio.

(D) Current Ratio.

Ans:

68. When an organisation or an individual assessee aims to reduce the tax liability through legal framework and it arranges the affairs in a manner that minimum tax is attracted, such a scheme is known as:

(A) Transfer pricing.

(B) Tax planning.

(D) Tax planning cum Tax evasion.

Ans:

69. After computing the income under each head separately, the incomes of the various heads are added together. The sum total of incomes of the various heads:

(A) Is called taxable income.

(B) Net taxable income.

(D) Gross total income (GTI).

Ans:

70. Form No. 16 under Rule 31 (1) (a) of the Income Tax Rule is essential for:

(A) Advance payment of tax.

(B) Filing of tax return by salaried employee.

(D) Both advance payment of tax and filing of return by non-salaried assessee.

Ans:

71. Given –

Total asset Turnover = 3.

Net Profit Margin = 10%.

Total Assets = Rs. 2,00,000.

The Net Profit is:

(A) 20,000.

(B) 30,000.

(D) 40,000.

Ans:

72. State whether the following statements are ‘True’ or ‘False’ by choosing the code showing the correct combination of answers:

(a) A Balance Sheet is a statement of assets and liabilities of an enterprise for a particular accounting period.

(b) Profit is the excess of revenues for the period over payments for the period.

(d) Depreciation is an amortised expenditure.

Codes:

(A) (a)-False, (b)-True, (c)-False, (d)-True.

(B) (a)-False, (b)-True, (c)-True, (d)-True.

(D) (a)-False, (b)-False, (c)-False, (d)-True.

Ans:

73. Re-arrange the following heads of asset in the balance sheet of a company:

(1) Fixed Assets.

(2) Miscellaneous Expenditure.

(3) Current assets.

(4) Loans & advances.

(4) Investment.

Codes:

(A) (1) (3) (4) (5) (2).

(B) (1) (5) (2) (3) (4).

(D) (1) (5) (3) (4) (2).

Ans:

74. Read the statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (Ass): A merger results into an economic advantage when the combined firms are worth more together than as separate entities.

Reason (R): Merger should be undertaken when the acquiring company’s gain exceeds the cost.

Codes:

(A) Both Ass and R are true and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

(B) Ass is true but R is false.

(D) Ass is false but R is true.

Ans:

75. Match List-I with List-Ii and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I (Type of Mutual funds)

List II (Features)

(a) Open ended fund.

(b) Income fund.

(d) Growth Fund.

(1) Maximum short term return to investors.

(2) Can sell unlimited number of units.

(3) The units are not redeemable at their NAV.

(4) Maximises long-term return to investors.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(3), (b)-(4), (c)-(2), (d)-(1).

(B) (a)-(3), (b)-(4), (c)-(1), (d)-(2).

(D) (a)-(2), (b)-(1), (c)-(3), (d)-(4).

Ans:

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