WB Set General Paper Solved January 2018 (Subject Code: 00)

West Bengal SET Solved Question Paper

WB Set General Paper Solved January 2018 (Subject Code: 00)

Read the passage below and answer the questions (Nos. 1 to 5) based on your understanding of the passage:

The “who’s who” of universities and research institutions published by the Human Resource Development Ministry, as the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2018, should be viewed mainly as a proposition that data make it possible to assign objective credentials to some aspects of education. Its assessment of some of the top institutions such as the Indian Institute of Science, the Jawaharlal Nehru University, the IITs and IIMs is unsurprising, given their record of research, peer-reviewed publications and outcomes for graduates.

Even among the 3,954 institutions that participated, there is a clear skew towards southern, southeastern and western India. Participation levels are inadequate: there were 40,026 colleges and 11,669 standalone institutions according to the HRD Ministry’s. All India Survey on Higher Education for 2016-17.

To the faculty and students in many colleges, what matters is the vision of the administrative leaders and a commitment to excellence. The governing bodies should make available adequate financial and academic resources to colleges, particularly the younger ones, to help them improve performance. These are measured by the NIRF in terms of the percentage of faculty with doctoral degrees, papers published in credentialed journals, inclusivity and diversity of students and median salaries for the graduates.

1. With reference to paragraph 1, what does the author mean by the phrase “who’s who”?

a) He wants to know who they are?

b) He is wondering who developed the list.

c) He is referring to the top institutions among universities and research institutes.

d) He is asking the reader to guess who these institutions are?

Ans: c) He is referring to the top institutions among universities and research institutes.

2. Which of the following four regions demonstrate greater tendency towards participation in the NIRF?

(1) Northern.

(2) North-Eastern.

(3) Western.

(4) South-Eastern.

Code:

a) Only (3) and (4).

b) Only (1), (3) and (4).

c) Only (1), (2) and (4).

d) Only (2) and (4).

Ans: a) Only (3) and (4).

3. Which of the following parameter(s) does/do the faculty and students consider to be most important while determining the worth of an institution?

(1) Vision of leadership.

(2) Frequency of pay hikes.

(3) Availability of adequate academic resources.

Code:

a) Only (3).

b) Only (1).

c) Only (1) and (3).

d) Only (2) and (3).

Ans: c) Only (1) and (3).

4. Which of the following parameter(s) is/are used by the NIRF to judge institutions for the purpose of their ranking?

(1) Papers published in reputed journals.

(2) Number of highly qualified faculty.

(3) Diversity of the student body.

Code:

a) Only (3).

b) Only (1), (2) and (3).

c) Only (1).

d) Only (2).

Ans: b) Only (1), (2) and (3).

5. Which of the following is/are true according to the passage?

(1) There was a huge amount of participation in NIRF 2018.

(2) The ranking system has been critiqued for failing to capture the critical metric of learning outcomes.

(3) NIRF’s assessment of the top institutions is still expected.

Code:

a) Only (1).

b) Only (2).

c) Only (1), (2) and (3).

d) Only (3).

Ans: d) Only (3).

6. ‘Study of the location of coal mines in India by a student in the Geography laboratory’ is:

a) A learning outcome.

b) A learning experience.

c) A teaching activity.

d) A teaching objective.

Ans: b) A learning experience.

7. Teaching is more effective when a teacher uses:

a) Lecture method.

b) Demonstration method.

c) Direct instruction.

d) Interactive teaching.

Ans: d) Interactive teaching.

8. Direct instruction is a teaching style in which:

a) Teacher and students are actively engaged.

b) Teacher is actively engaged.

c) Students are actively engaged.

d) Neither teacher nor students are actively engaged.

Ans: b) Teacher is actively engaged.

9. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code:

List-I

List-II

(a) Collaborative learning.

(b) Jurisprudential inquiry.

(c) Instructional objective.

(d) Assessment for learning.

(1) Socretic dialogue.

(2) Pro-active stage of teaching.

(3) Interpersonal affiliation.

(4) Aggregation of individual change.

(5) Creativity.

Code:

(A) (a)-(3) (b)-(1) (c)-(5) (d)-(2).

(B) (a)-(1) (b)-(5) (c)-(3) (d)-(4).

(C) (a)-(4) (b)-(2) (c)-(5) (d)-(1).

(D) (a)-(3) (b)-(4) (c)-(5) (d)-(2).

Ans: (A) (a)-(3) (b)-(1) (c)-(5) (d)-(2).

10. In the process of evaluation, assessment procedure involves:

a) Measurement and non-measurement.

b) Measurement or non-measurement.

c) Measurement and/or non-measurement.

d) Neither measurement nor non-measurement.

Ans: c) Measurement and/or non-measurement.

11. In any research involving human participants maintaining the confidentiality of data is:

a) A common sense.

b) A legal consideration.

c) An obligation.

d) An ethical consideration.

Ans: d) An ethical consideration.

12. Which of the following is exclusive to ethnographic research?

a) Field based research.

b) Mixed research approach.

c) Study of culture.

d) Conducted in a natural setting.

Ans: c) Study of culture.

13. Which of the following characteristic of research is not commonly found across all the disciplines?

a) Precision.

b) Objectivity.

c) Verifiability.

d) Impartiality.

Ans: c) Verifiability.

14. Writing of a research proposal uses:

a) References.

b) Footnotes.

c) Endnotes.

d) Bibliography.

Ans: d) Bibliography.

15. Which of the following is not required for research in the Digital Humanities?

a) Computer literacy.

b) Open-access databases.

c) Specialized knowledge of computer language.

d) Text analysis.

Ans: c) Specialized knowledge of computer language.

16. Identify the concept sequence among the following four activities in research and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code.

(1) Conclusions.

(2) Literature review.

(3) Utility.

(4) Findings.

Code:

a) (2), (1), (4) and (3).

b) (3), (2), (1) and (4).

c) (2), (4), (1) and (3).

d) (1), (3), (4), and (2).

Ans: c) (2), (4), (1) and (3).

17. Which modern theoretical approach in research originated in India?

a) Translation Studies.

b) Subaltern Studies.

c) Race Studies.

d) Ethnicity Studies.

Ans: b) Subaltern Studies.

18. The best type of communication among people of equal status in higher education is:

a) Diagonal communication.

b) Horizontal communication.

c) Cross communication.

d) Vertical communication.

Ans: b) Horizontal communication.

19. TV channel launched for covering only Engineering and Technology subjects is known as:

a) Gyan Darshan.

b) Vyas.

c) Eklavya.

d) Kisan.

Ans: c) Eklavya.

20. Find the missing number maintaining the rule given below:

1 + 4 = 5

2 + 5 = 12

3 + 6 = 21

9 + 12 = ?

Choose the correct missing number from the following:

a) 76.

b) 96.

c) 117.

d) 125.

Ans: c) 117.

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21. Of the following statements there are two statements both of which cannot be true. Which are these two statements?

(1) Dinosaurs became extinct in the Cretaceous-Paleolithic era.

(2) Dinosaurs were destroyed after the invention of gunpowder.

(3) Dinosaurs failed to adapt to environmental changes.

(4) Dinosaurs might have been saved if they had been protected in zoos.

Code:

a) (1) and (2) are not true.

b) (2) and (4) are not true.

c) (1) and (4) are not true.

d) (3) and (4) are not true.

Ans: b) (2) and (4) are not true.

22. From the following table answer the question:

Projected availability and demand for sales (For the period 2004 – 2005 and 2011 – 2012) (*000 tonnes)

 

 

2004 – 2005

2011 – 2012

SL. No.

Category

Demand

Availability

Demand

Availability

1

2

3

Shapes

Flats

Railway Material

6,960

4,360

400

5,725

5,020

550

9,745

6,300

450

9,360

6,600

560

What percentage growth is in the demand for Railway Material over the eight year period from 2004 – 2005 to   2011 – 2012?

a) 10.5%.

b) 11.5%.

c) 12.5%.

d) 13.5%.

Ans: c) 12.5%.

23. The letters of the word RACTOR are in disorder. If they are arranged in proper order, the name of a vegetable is formed. What is the first and last letters of the word so formed?

a) A.T.

b) C.T.

c) T.A.

d) T.C.

Ans: b) C.T.

24. Three squares are drawn as follows:

Screenshot 20220904 1354292

From the above figure find the missing values in the middle of the square and choose the correct answer from the following:

a) 3, 3.

b) 4, 4.

c) 6, 6.

d) 8, 2.

Ans: c) 6, 6.

25. If MACHINE is coded as 19-7-9-14-15-20-11, then DANGER will be coded as:

a) 13-7-20-13-11-24.

b) 13-7-20-10-11-25.

c) 13-7-20-16-11-24.

d) 10-7-20-13-11-24.

Ans: d) 10-7-20-13-11-24.

26. Which one of the following numbers will occupy the blank space?

4

8

20

9

3

15

6

6

a) 22.

b) 18.

c) 16.

d) 24.

Ans: b) 18.

27. The sum of three numbers is 102. If the ratio between first and second be 2 : 3 and that between second and third be 5 : 3, then the second number is:

a) 30.

b) 45.

c) 27.

d) 48.

Ans: b) 45.

28. The least perfect square which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 is:

a) 900.

b) 1,200.

c) 2,500.

d) 3,600.

Ans: d) 3,600.

29. The argument below is followed by an inference. Choose the correct option with reference to the inference.

Argument: The CBCS syllabus has been introduced to facilitate credit transfers of students.

Inference: The CBCS syllabus is not at all useful for students not seeking credit transfer.

a) Valid.

b) Invalid.

c) Doubtful.

d) Inconclusive.

Ans: b) Invalid.

30. A group of students decided to collect as many rupees from each member of the group as the number of members. If the total collection amounts to Rs. 2,209, the number of members in the group is:

a) 37.

b) 47.

c) 43.

d) 107.

Ans: b) 47.

31. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24 minutes and 32 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, after how much time should B be closed so that the tank is full in 18 minutes?

a) 8.

b) 10.

c) 9.

d) 6.

Ans: a) 8.

32. In the given diagram circle represents strong men, square represents tall men and triangle represents army officers. Which region represents army officers who are tall but not strong?

Screenshot 20220904 1355012

a) 1.

b) 3.

c) 4.

d) 2.

Ans: c) 4.

33. From amongst six boys A, B, C, D, E and F and five girls P, Q, R, S and T; a team of six is to be selected under the following conditions:

A and D have to be together.

B cannot be teamed with E.

D cannot go with P.

C cannot go with S.

B and R have to be together.

S and T have to be together.

If four members including E have to be boys, the members other than E are:

a) ABCQR.

b) ACDFQ.

c) ADFST.

d) BCFQR.

Ans: c) ADFST.

34. The full form of IOT is:

a) Internet of Tasks.

b) Information of Things.

c) Internet of things.

d) Interdependency of Things.

Ans: c) Internet of things.

35. A digital signature is called:

a) Digitally scanned signature.

b) Handwritten signature.

c) Encrypted information.

d) Verbally communicated message.

Ans: c) Encrypted information.

36. Where does a computer add and compare its data?

a) CPU.

b) Memory.

c) Hard Disc.

d) Floppy Disc.

Ans: a) CPU.

37. Bandwidth of data communication is a measure of its:

a) Physical dimension.

b) Data communication capacity.

c) Electrical parameters.

d) Physical strength.

Ans: b) Data communication capacity.

38. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code:

List-I

List-II

(a) Netizen.

(b) Memex.

(c) Floppy Disk.

(d) C++ Programming Language.

(1) Michael Frederick Hauben.

(2) Vannevar Bush.

(3) Gordon Moore.

(4) Yoshiro Nakamatsu.

(5) Bjarne Stroustrup.

Code:

(A)  (a)-(2) (b)-(3) (c)-(1) (d)-(4).

(B) (a)-(3) (b)-(5) (c)-(4) (d)-(2).

(C) (a)-(5) (b)-(1) (c)-(2) (d)-(4).

(D) (a)-(4) (b)-(2) (c)-(1) (d)-(5).

Ans: (A) (B) (C) (D)

39. Red Data Book provides authentic data on:

a) Red flowered plants.

b) Red coloured fishes.

c) Lists of plants and animals.

d) Endangered plants and animals.

Ans: d) Endangered plants and animals.

40. When is World Wildlife Week observed?

a) First week of September.

b) Last week of September.

c) First week of October.

d) Last week of October.

Ans: c) First week of October.

41. The headquarters of the International Union for conservation of Nature is at:

a) Gland.

b) Paris.

c) Vienna.

d) New York.

Ans: a) Gland.

42. The protocol that reduces greenhouse gas emission is:

a) Kyoto protocol.

b) Vienna protocol.

c) Montreal protocol.

d) Cartagena protocol.

Ans: a) Kyoto protocol.

43. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code.

List-I

List-II

(a) Troposphere.

(b) Stratosphere.

(c) Mesosphere.

(d) Thermosphere.

(1) The pyramid of numbers and biomass.

(2) Ionosphere.

(3) Meteorities. 

(4) Ozone gas.

(5) Occurrence of almost all the weather phenomena.

Code:

(A) (a)-(3) (b)-(2) (c)-(1) (d)-(5).

(B) (a)-(5) (b)-(4) (c)-(3) (d)-(2).

(C) (a)-(2) (b)-(1) (c)-(3) (d)-(4).

(D) (a)-(1) (b)-(5) (c)-(2) (d)-(3).

Ans: (B) (a)-(5) (b)-(4) (c)-(3) (d)-(2).

44. The NAAC is an autonomous institution of the:

a) MHRD.

b) Quality Council of India.

c) UGC.

d) Higher Education Council of India.

Ans: c) UGC.

45. Which of the following is not a function of the IQAC?

a) Development of quality parameters for the academic activities of the institution.

b) Organization of workshops and seminars on quality related themes.

c) Acting as a nodal centre of the institution for related academic activities.

d) Preparation of quality syllabus for different teaching programmes operating in the institution.

Ans: d) Preparation of quality syllabus for different teaching programmes operating in the institution.

46. Which of the following represents the correct chronology concerning foundation of national organizations?

a) NCERT – Indian Institute of Advanced Study – IGNOU – National Council for Teacher Education.

b) Indian Institute of Advanced Study – NCERT – National Council for Teacher Education – IGNOU.

c) NCERT – National Council for Teacher Education – IGNOU – Indian Institute of Advanced Study.

d) IGNOU – NCERT – Indian Institute of Advanced Study – National Council for Teacher Education.

Ans: a) NCERT – Indian Institute of Advanced Study – IGNOU – National Council for Teacher Education.

47. “Learning: The Treasure Within” submitted to the UNESCO by Jacques Delors, is a report on:

a) Education.

b) Economics.

c) Foreign Affairs.

d) Racial Matters.

Ans: a) Education.

48. In the contemporary India, higher education institutions aims at to inculcate the following values amongst students:

a) Moral values.

b) Inclusive values.

c) Religious values.

d) Democratic values.

Ans: b) Inclusive values.

49. Which of the following scheme is not included under National Skill Qualification Framework scheme?

a) B. Voc Degree programme.

b) Deen Dayal Upadhyay KAUSHAL Kendras.

c)  Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya National Mission on Teachers and Training.

d) Community College.

Ans: c) Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya National Mission on Teachers and Training.

50. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code.

List-I

List-II

(a) SWAYAM.

(b) SWAYAM Prabha.

(c) National programme on Technology Enabled Learning.

(d) National Digital Library of India.

(1) Virtual repository of learning resources.

(2) Subject expert database.

(3) Course contents in Engineering and Science.

(4) DTH Channel for educational resources.

(5) Massive Open Online Courses.

 Code:

(A) (a)-(5) (b)-(4) (c)-(3) (d)-(1).

(B) (a)-(3) (b)-(2) (c)-(4) (d)-(5).

(C) (a)-(2) (b)-(1) (c)-(3) (d)-(4).

(D) (a)-(5) (b)-(4) (c)-(2) (d)-(3).

Ans: (A) (a)-(5) (b)-(4) (c)-(3) (d)-(1).

***

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