Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2017

SLET NE Paper 1 Solved 2017

[Time: 1.15 hour; Maximum Marks: 100]

Note: There are Sixty (60) questions, out of which you are to answer fifty (50) questions only. If you answer more than fifty (50) questions, then only the first fifty (50) questions attempted will be evaluated. The questions carry two (2) marks each.

In this post you will get Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2017 with Proper Explanation. SLET NE Commerce Solved Paper (2012 to 2022) is also available on our website.

Assam SLET Exam is conducted every year by SLET Commission NE Region. Question Papers of Assam SLET Exam is tough as compared to UGC NET Exam question paper. Syllabus of Assam SLET (SLET NE) Exam and UGC NET exam is similar. You can refer Assam SLET Paper 1 syllabus for 2023 here.

assam slet paper 1 solved 2017

Also Read: Assam SLET (SLETNE) Solved Question Papers – General Paper Solutions (2012 to 2023)

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2012

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2013

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2014

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2015

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2017

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2018

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2019

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2021

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2022

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2023

1. Which one of the following is not a method of evaluation?

(A) Oral examination.

(B) Case Study.

(D) Interview.

Ans: (C) Observation.

[Hint: Methods of Evalution includes Oral examination, Case study, Interview and questionnaire.]

2. As a method of evaluation, which of the following is least appropriate for small children?

(A) Written examination.

(B) Interview.

(D) Observation.

Ans: (A) Written examination.

3. With which of the following propositions about research you do not agree?

(A) Research is a joy in itself.

(B) Research improves the quality of teaching.

(D) Research leads to finding solution.

Ans: (A) Research is a joy in itself.

4. Research and Development [R & D] has now become the index of development of a country because –

(A) R & D reflect the true economic and social conditions prevailing in a country.

(B) R & D targets the human development.

(D) All of the above.

Ans: (D) All of the above.

5. Evaluate the following statements in terms of whether each is a fact, opinion, prejudice or advice.

(a) Women are not suitable for police service.

(b) In democracy, no party should be in power for too long.

(d) Obesity is a risk factor for coronary heart disease.

Which of the following is the correct alternative?

Codes:

(A) Opinion-(b), Prejudice-(c), Fact-(d), Advice-(a).

(B) Opinion-(b), Prejudice-(a), Fact-(d), Advice-(c).

(D) Opinion-(b), Prejudice-(d), Fact-(c), Advice-(a).

Ans: (B) Opinion-(b), Prejudice-(a), Fact-(d), Advice-(c).

6. In the following, interrogative is followed by two arguments, one beginning with ‘yes’ and the other with ‘no’. Pick-up the correct answer choice from the answer choices given below.

Should free education be imparted in Indian school?

I. Yes, because India is a democratic country.

II. No, because free education will lead to unemployment of the educated people.

(A) Only argument I is forceful.

(B) Only argument II is forceful.

(D) Neither argument I nor II is forceful.

Ans: (D) Neither argument I nor II is forceful.

7. At the primary stage most of the school teachers should be women with charming personality because they –

(A) know basic content better than men.

(B) are available on lower salary payment and obedient than male.

(D) can deal with pupil with love and affection.

Ans: (D) can deal with pupil with love and affection.

8. Child labour can best eradicated if the following is done for the concerned children

(A) appropriate laws are enacted and enforced.

(B) schools are opened and free lunch (MDM) is provided.

(D) employment is provided to parents and free education given to children.

Ans: (D) employment is provided to parents and free education given to children.

9. Meaningful learning takes place when:

(A) the new content being taught is related to the previous knowledge of students.

(B) students raise questions and get them clarified from the teacher.

(D) explanations are given within the reach of the students.

Ans: (C) students are interested in the topics taught.

10. Which of the following is the most forceful argument to support the statement that women must be given fifty per cent reservation in State Assembly and Parliamentary election in India?

(A) Women constitutes about fifty per cent of the total population.

(B) This will facilitate the optimum use of human resources.

(D) Women have so far been marginalized in public and political life.

Ans: (D) Women have so far been marginalized in public and political life.

11. Which of the statements noted below has the high probability of being correct as applied to higher education?

(A) All students cannot learn and so all do not learn.

(B) All students can learn but all do not learn.

(D) All students cannot learn but all want to learn.

Ans: (B) All students can learn but all do not learn.

Read the following passage and answer the question Nos. 12 to 16.

Today I would like to discuss with all of you an important area that is “Energy Security” – a transition to total “Energy Independence”. Energy is the lifeline of modern societies. But today, India has 17 per cent of the world’s population, and just 0.8 per cent of the world’s known oil and natural gas resources.

Out annual requirement of oil is 114 million tonnes. A significant part of this is consumed in the transportation sector. We produce only about 25 per cent of our total requirement. The import cost today of oil and natural gas is over Rs. 1,20,000 crore. Oil and gas prices are escalating; the barrel cost of oil has doubled within a year.

Energy security, which means ensuring that our country can supply the lifeline of energy to all its citizens, at affordable costs at all times, is thus a very important and significant need and is an essential step forward. But it must be considered as a transition strategy, to enable us to achieve our real goals, that is energy independence or an economy which will function well with total freedom from oil, gas or coal imports.

12. What per cent of our annual consumption of oil its imported?

(A) 25%.

(B) 40%.

(D) 95%.

Ans: (C) 75%.

13. What per cent of the world’s known oil and natural gas is possessed by India?

(A) 17%.

(B) 0.8%.

(D) 25%.

Ans: (B) 0.8%.

14. Within a year, the cost of a barrel of oil has increased by

(A) 50%.

(B) 75%.

(D) 150%.

Ans: (C) 100%.

15. According to the author, what is the lifeline of modern societies?

(A) Oil.

(B) Gas.

(D) Energy.

Ans: (D) Energy.

16. Energy independence means an economy with total freedom from import of

(A) Consumer goods.

(B) Fossil fuels.

(D) Technology.

Ans: (B) Fossil fuels.

17. Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a bench facing east such that

(i) C is at the immediate right of D.

(ii) B is at the extreme end and has E as his neighbour.

(iii) G is between E and F.

(iv) D is sitting third from the south end.

Who is at the immediate right of F?

(A) A.

(B) B.

(D) D.

Ans: (D) D. [Check Answer Here]

Untitled 32

19. Today is Monday. What will be the day after 141 days?

(A) Monday.

(B) Tuesday.

(D) Thursday.

Ans: (B) Tuesday.

[Hint: One week has 7 days. After 7 days, it is the same day again and so on.

If we divide 141 by 7 = we get 20, leaving a remainder of 1, which means that after 140 days, it will be Monday again.

So, After 141 days, will be Tuesday.]

20. Fill in the blank with the appropriate number

DIBRUGARH = 385641267 BARK = 5269 KING = 9801 GRAND _______

(A) 62031.

(B) 25460.

(D) 12789.

Ans: (C) 16203.

Untitled 33

Correction: Correct Answer is (A) 3

Untitled 34

23. Two statements are given below followed by four conclusions. Which conclusion is correct?

Statements:

I. All integers are rational numbers.

II. All natural numbers are integers.

Conclusions:

(A) All natural numbers are rational numbers.

(B) All rational numbers are integers.

(D) No integer is a natural number.

Ans: (A) All natural numbers are rational numbers.

24. Consider the following statement –

“If a number is divisible by 8, then it is divisible by 4.”

Which of the following is equivalent to the above statement?

(A) If a number is divisible by 4, then it is divisible by 8.

(B) If a number is not divisible by 4, then it is not divisible by 8.

(D) A number is divisible by 8 if and only if it is divisible by 4.

Ans: (B) If a number is not divisible by 4, then it is not divisible by 8.

25. Consider the following statement –

“Bezbaruah is a poet and Khushwant Singh is a novelist.”

The negation of the above statement is

(A) Bezbaruah is not a poet and Khushwant Singh is not a novelist.

(B) Bezbaruah is a poet or Khushwant Singh is not a novelist.

(D) Bezbaruah is not a poet or Khushwant Singh is not a novelist.

Ans: (D) Bezbaruah is not a poet or Khushwant Singh is not a novelist.

26. I denotes

(A) Universal Affirmative Proposition.

(B) Universal Negative Proposition.

(D) Particular Negative Proposition.

Ans: (C) Particular Affirmative Proposition.

27. The question given below is followed by two arguments, viz. I and II.

Should academics be debarred from joining active politics in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes, they are not good at politics.

II. No, this is against the rights of a citizen in a democratic country like India.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

(A) Only the argument I is strong.

(B) Only the argument II is strong.

(D) Both the argument I and II are strong.

Ans: (B) Only the argument II is strong.

28. Insert the three missing letters

KRA : NUD : : UOI : _______

(A) WOK.

(B) XRL.

(D) VPJ.

Ans: (B) XRL. [ Hint: Difference of 4 letters – K -> N R->U A->D AND SO ON]

29. Two statements (I and II) are given below:

I. Change in latitude and altitude causes variation in biodiversity.

II. The hot spots are the richest and the most threatened reservoirs of plant and animal life on the earth.

Which of the following is correct?

(A) Both I and II are true.

(B) I is true, but II is false.

(D) Neither I nor II is true.

Ans: (A) Both I and II are true.

30. Medha Patkar is associated with

(A) Bhoodan Andolan.

(B) Chipko Movement.

(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Ans: (D) Narmada Bachao Andolan.

31. A unit used in the comparison of two power levels relating to electrical signals or sound intensities, one of the pair usually being taken as a standard is

(A) ampere.

(B) centime.

(D) hertz.

Ans: (C) decibel.

32. The ocean lying between Europe and Africa to the east and North and South America to the west is

(A) Atlantic Ocean.

(B) Indian Ocean.

(D) Southern Ocean.

Ans: (A) Atlantic Ocean.

33. Large treeless plains in South America are known as

(A) Tundra swan.

(B) Madeira.

(D) Selva.

Ans: (C) Pampas.

34. Formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the major cause behind?

(A) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming.

(B) Formation of prominent tropospheric turbulence and inflow of CFC’s.

(D) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds and inflow of methane and CFC’s.

Ans: (C) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds and inflow of CFC’s.

35. A high-level programming language developed in Europe at the same time as FORTRAN was being developed in the United States is

(A) ALGOL.

(B) BASIC.

(D) C sharp.

Ans: (A) ALGOL.

36. LED stands for

(A) Light Emitting Disc.

(B) Light Emitting Diode.

(D) Light Electric Disc.

Ans: (B) Light Emitting Diode.

37. A file that contains data no longer is use, but held for historical purposes, perhaps for auditors, is

(A) Archive File.

(B) Batch File.

(D) Old File.

Ans: (A) Archive File.

38. A term used to refer to equipment which uses components like transistors and valves to control the current is

(A) Electronic.

(B) The Web.

(D) Electromagnetic.

Ans: (A) Electronic.

39. A computer performs it’s all mathematical and logical calculations through

(A) CPU.

(B) Memory Unit.

(D) Visual Display Unit.

Ans: (A) CPU.

40. The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of kilobytes or megabytes. A bite is made up of

(A) eight binary digits.

(B) two binary digits.

(D) two decimal digits.

Ans: (A) eight binary digits.

The following pie diagram gives the annual agricultural production of certain place.

Untitled 10

Study the above diagram and answer the questions given below (No. 41 to No. 45)

41. If the total production is 6120 metric ton, match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List I (Items)

List II (Production)

1. Wheat.

2. Sugar.

3. Rice.

4. Others.

(i) 2260.

(ii) 1360.

(iii) 1530.

(iv) 2040.

(v) 1190.

(vi) 1360.

Codes:

(A) 1-(iii), 2-(v), 3-(iv), 4-(vi).

(B) 1-(i), 2-(v), 3-(iv), 4-(ii).

(D) 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(v).

Ans: (A) 1-(iii), 2-(v), 3-(iv), 4-(vi).

42. If the production of wheat is 1275 metric ton, the production of rice is

(A) 125000kg.

(B) 170000kg.

(D) 1700000kg.

Ans: (D) 1700000kg.

43. The production of wheat is less than production of rice by

(A) 15%.

(B) 20%.

(D) 30%.

Ans: (C) 25%.

44. If the price of rice is first increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the net change in the price of rice is

(A) no change.

(B) 1% increase.

(D) 4% decrease.

Ans: (D) 4% decrease.

45. If the price of wheat is first increased by 2% and then again increased by 1%, the net increase is

(A) 3.5%.

(B) 3.2%.

(D) 3%.

Ans: (C) 3.02%.

46. The following table indicates the marks of students in an examination on English

Marks	Number of students
90-99	27
80-89	147
70-79	157
60-69	173
50-59	167
40-49	162
30-39	147
20-29	14
10-19	6

What is the percentage of students whose scores are above 60 but below 80?

(A) 30%.

(B) 31%.

(D) 33%.

Ans: (D) 33%.

47. Match List I with List II and select the correct match from the codes given below:

List I (Commissions)

List II (Chairpersons)

1. Secondary Education Commission.

2. Calcutta University Commission.

3. Indian Education Commission.

4. University Education Commission.

(i) D.S. Kothari.

(ii) A.L. Mudaliar.

(iii) Ashutosh Mukherjee.

(iv) S. Radhakrishnan.

(v) M.E. Sadler.

(vi) J.P. Naik.

Codes:

(A) (1)-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(v), 4-(iv).

(B) (1)-(i), 2-(v), 3-(vi), 4-(ii).

(D) (1)-(vi), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i).

Ans: (C) (1)-(ii), 2-(v), 3-(i), 4-(iv).

[Hint: Present Chairperson 2022

Secondary Education Commission – Dr. Lakshman Swami Mudaliar

Calcutta University Commission – Asis Kumar Chattopadhyay

Indian Education Commission – Dr. Daulat Singh Kothari

University Education/Grant Commission – M. Jagadesh Kumar]

48. Match List I with List II and select the correct match from the codes given below:

List I (Universities)

List II (Vice Chancellors)

1. Gauhati University.

2. Assam University.

3. Tezpur University.

4. Dibrugarh University.

(i) Bani Kanta Kakoty.

(ii) Krishna Kanta Handiqui.

(iii) Bhojraj Seth.

(iv) J.B. Bhattacharya.

(v) K.M. Pathak.

(vi) Dinesh Singh.

Codes:

(A) (1)-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(v), 4-(iii).

(B) (1)-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(iii).

(D) (1)-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(v).

Ans: (A) (1)-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(v), 4-(iii).

49. Match List I with List II and select the correct match from the codes given below.

List I (Institutions)

List II (Locations)

1. The Harish-Chandra Research Institute of Mathematical Sciences.

2. Tata Institute of Social Sciences.

3. Deccan College.

4. National Savings Institute.

(i) New Delhi.

(ii) Pune.

(iii) Bhopal.

(iv) Prayagraj.

(v) Mumbai.

Codes:

(A) (1)-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(v), 4-(iv).

(B) (1)-(iv), 2-(v), 3-(ii), 4-(i).

(D) (1)-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(v).

Ans: (B) (1)-(iv), 2-(v), 3-(ii), 4-(i).

50. The Chancellor of VISVA-BHARATI is

(A) President of India.

(B) Prime Minister of India.

(D) Chief Minister of West Bengal.

Ans: (B) Prime Minister of India.

51. Which of the following is not a Central University?

(A) Tripura University.

(B) North Eastern Hill University.

(D) Madras University.

Ans: (D) Madras University.

52. Match List I with List II and select the correct match from the codes given below:

List I (Institutions)

List II (Where Located)

1. S.N.D.T. University.

2. N.U.E.P.A.

3. Physical Research Laboratory.

4. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre.

(i) Delhi.

(ii) Thiruvanthapuram.

(iii) Pune.

(iv) Mumbai.

(v) Chennai.

(vi) Ahmedabad.

Codes:

(A) (1)-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(vi), 4-(ii).

(B) (1)-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(vi), 4-(ii).

(D) (1)-(ii), 2-(v), 3-(iii), 4-(iv).

Ans: (A) (1)-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(vi), 4-(ii).

53. ‘_______ is the supreme medium to express yesterday, today and tomorrow with its own unique language’.

Fill in the blank with proper word given below.

(A) Newspaper.

(B) Radio.

(D) Cinema.

Ans: (D) Cinema.

54. Below are two statements – one Assertion (Ass) and the other Reason (R). Examine them and find the correct answer from codes below.

Assertion (Ass): There is excessive detail and ornamentation in Hoysala sculptures.

Reason (R): Hoysala sculptures are carved in soft chloristic schism.

Codes:

(A) Both Ass and R are true and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

(B) Both Ass and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of Ass.

(D) Ass is false, but R is true.

Ans: (A) Both Ass and R are true and R is the correct explanation of Ass.

55. Which of the following is a reaction of the receiver to sender?

(A) Coding.

(B) Questionnaire.

(D) Feedback.

Ans: (D) Feedback.

56. In an effective communication there is no need of

(A) modulations in voice and speech.

(B) adequate gestures.

(D) handsome personality.

Ans: (D) handsome personality.

57. Which one of the following pair(s) is / are wrongly matched?

Grasslands Location

(a) Meadows. Central Asia.

(b) Downs. Australia.

(d) Velds. South Africa.

Codes:

(A) (a) and (b).

(B) (b) and (d).

(D) only a.

Ans: (C) only c.

58. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

City River

(A) Paris. Seine.

(B) Khartoum. Blue and White Nile.

(D) Agra. Yamuna.

Ans: (C) Baghdad = Euphrates.

59. Match the following and find the correct match using codes below.

List I (Artists)

List II (Instrument)

(a) Ali Akbar Khan.

(b) Yahudi Menuhin.

(d) Hari P Chaurasia.

(i) Flute.

(ii) Sarod.

(iii) Sitar.

(iv) Santoor.

Codes:

(A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).

(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii).

(D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i).

Ans: (D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i).

60. The following sentence is followed by two statements which may be implications of the first sentence. It is followed by four answer choices. Select the correct choice given below.

“He promised to study the matter thoroughly”.

I. He is in the habit of making promises.

II. The matter needed to be studied thoroughly.

Choices:

(A) Only statement I is implied.

(B) Only statement II is implied.

(D) Neither statement I nor II is implied.

Ans: (B) Only statement II is implied.