Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2019 | SLET NE Paper 1 Solved 2019

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2019

SLET NE Paper 1 Solved 2019

[Time: 1.15 hour; Maximum Marks: 100]

Note: There are Sixty (60) questions, out of which you are to answer fifty (50) questions only. If you answer more than fifty (50) questions, then only the first fifty (50) questions attempted will be evaluated. The questions carry two (2) marks each.

In this post you will get Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2019 with Proper Explanation. SLET NE Commerce Solved Paper (2012 to 2022) is also available on our website.

Assam SLET Exam is conducted every year by SLET Commission NE Region. Question Papers of Assam SLET Exam is tough as compared to UGC NET Exam question paper. Syllabus of Assam SLET (SLET NE) Exam and UGC NET exam is similar. You can refer Assam SLET Paper 1 syllabus for 2023 here.

assam slet paper 1 solved 2019

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2019

1. A serious minded teacher as a rule

(A) takes all precautions so that students never commit mistakes.

(B) never allows any mistake on the part of the students.

(C) allows the mistakes to be committed and explains how to minimise those mistakes.

(D) mildly punishes that students who commit mistakes.

Ans: (C) allows the mistakes to be committed and explains how to minimise those mistakes.

2. A newly appointed teacher meeting his students for the first time should

(A) develop a good rapport with the class.

(B) start teaching without caring for students’ likes and dislikes.

(C) give a broad outline of the subject with scope.

(D) both (A) and (C).

Ans: (D) both (A) and (C).

3. In learning of language which of the following represents the correct sequence of activity?

(A) Writing, Reading, Speaking and Listening.

(B) Reading, Listening, Writing and Speaking.

(C) Listening, Speaking, Reading and Writing.

(D) Speaking, Writing, Listening and Reading.

Ans: (C) Listening, Speaking, Reading and Writing.

4. The best way for a teacher of English in school is:

(A) To dictate notes and encourage students to cram.

(B) To prepare answers to all probable questions.

(C) To confine strictly to the text materials and requirements of examination.

(D) To create appropriate situations for students to speak and write.

Ans: (D) To create appropriate situations for students to speak and write.

5. Bibliography given in a research report

(A) shows the vast knowledge of the researcher.

(B) helps those interested in further research and studying the problems from another angle.

(C) makes the report authentic.

(D) All of the above.

Ans: (B) helps those interested in further research and studying the problems from another angle.

Also Read: Assam SLET (SLETNE) Solved Question Papers – General Paper Solutions (2012 to 2023)

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2012

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2013

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2014

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2015

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2017

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2018

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2019

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2021

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2022

Assam SLET Paper 1 Solved 2023

6. Survey study aims at

(i) knowing facts about the existing situation.

(ii) comparing the present status with the standard norms.

(iii) criticising the existing situation.

(iv) identifying the means of improving the existing situation.

Choose the correct one from the codes given below:

(A) (i) and (ii) only.

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only.

(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

(D) (ii) and (iii) only.

Ans: (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only. [Read Google Book for Paper 1]

7. Equal educational opportunity means

(A) equal opportunity to have the type of education for which one is suited.

(B) equality of education standards for each child.

(C) equal opportunity for all children to have access to higher education.

(D) All of the above.

Ans: (D) All of the above.

8. The technique adopted to find out the level of acceptability of an individual by members of a selection board is

(A) Projective techniques.

(B) Personality testing.

(C) Psychometry.

(D) Sociometry.

Ans: (D) Sociometry.

Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 9 to 13.

“Out Indian history, such as it was, learned from The History of the British Empire by Williamson. It began in 1610 when Sir Thomas Roe, the first Ambassador to India of an English Monarch, Names I, presented his credentials to the Emperor Jahangir at Ajmer. We dwelt in great detail on The Victories of Clive at Plassey and elsewhere ….All we know to Calcutta was the ‘Black Hole’…..Until I went to St. Xavier’s College, Calcutta.

There I met and encountered Indian who were equal if not superior to me in wit, wisdom, culture, even English literature. I was a founder member with Utpal Dutt of his first troupe of actors – The Amateur Shakespearians. I wrote articles for St. Xavier’s College Magazine when P. Lal was editor. I mingled with Minu Doha, Tarun Roy, Peter Banerjee, Romen, the ebullient son of Sir ‘Byron’ Mukherjee and others. With some there developed friendships that lasted. But the impact of all on me was definite and irremovable.

But I must record in detail the impact of one. My relationship with him was very temporary. He was not an intellectual, certainly not one of the literati. He was not even in our Christian Hostel. But as Indian Independence approached there was a fear of recurrence of the terrible riots that shook Calcutta exactly a year previously. The Hindu hostilities were evacuated from their Lower Circular Road Hostel to our Christian Hostel, safe in the grounds of the college in Park Street.

There came the question of a Hostel Entertainment to celebrate Independence. Some of us felt in our hearts that it was an occasion to be mourned rather than celebrated. But prudence induced silence. At any rate we would boycott the show. Then Tamuli approached me. He was the acknowledged leader of the Hindu Hostilities. A tall, casually good-looking Assamese, he had un-derivable charm of manner.

He asked me if I would organise the English section of Independence celebrations. It was not the fact of his request that turned me but the manner of it and his dealings with me in the subsequent days of preparation. Here was an Indian whose approach was neither subservient not affected nor insolvent with the pride of new found nationalism. He was gentle, modest, sincere, yet with un-derivable dignity.” – R. H. Lesser.

9. Who was the first Ambassador to Indian of an English Monarch?

(A) James I.

(B) Sir Thomas Roe.

(C) Emperor Jahangir.

(D) Williamson.

Ans: (B) Sir Thomas Roe.

10. The ‘Black Hole’ referred to in the above passage means

(A) A place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light cannot get out.

(B) A dark pit.

(C) A opening in a solid that is painted black.

(D) A small prison / dungeon.

Ans: (D) A small prison / dungeon.

11. The author wrote articles for St. Xavier’s College magazine. The editor of the magazine was

(A) Utpal Dutt.

(B) Minu Doha.

(C) P. Lal.

(D) Tarun Roy.

Ans: (C) P. Lal.

12. Who was the acknowledged leader of the Hindu Hostel?

(A) Lal.

(B) Dutt.

(C) Banerjee.

(D) Tamuli.

Ans: (D) Tamuli.

13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I

List – II

1. Ebullient.

2. Prudence.

3. Subservient.

4. Insolvent.

(i) insulting in manner or words.

(ii) respectful or salve-like.

(iii) not able to pay one’s debts.

(iv) enthusiastic.

(v) wisdom and caution.

(vi) extremely proud.

Codes:

(A) 1-(iv), 2-(v), 3-(ii), 4-(i).

(B) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(vi), 4-(iii).

(C) 1-(vi), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii).

(D) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(v), 4-(i).


Ans: (B) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(vi), 4-(iii).

Untitled 29

15. Consider the following two statements.

I. 2 + 3 = 5 and 2 x 3 = 5

II. 4/2 = 2 or 2/4 = 2

(A) I is false, II is false.

(B) I is false, II is true.

(C) I is true, II is false.

(D) I is true, II is true.

Ans: (A) I is false, II is false.

16. 31st March of a certain year is Friday. What is the day on 1st December of the same year?

(A) Tuesday.

(B) Wednesday.

(C) Thursday.

(D) Friday.

Ans: (D) Friday.

17. Study the following series of three numbers followed by a blank.

7    26     63     _______

Which number fits the blank?

(A) 75.

(B) 82.

(C) 100.

(D) 124.

Ans: (D) 124. ( 2 Cube – 1, 3 Cube – 1, 4 Cube – 1 and finally 5 cube – 1.

18. Study the following mixed series of letters and numbers followed by a blank.

Z1     X4     U9     _______

Which of the following fits the blank?

(A) P16.

(B) Q15.

(C) R16.

(D) Q16.

Ans: (D) Q16.  [Hint: For Number – 1 SQR, 2 SQR, 3 SQR and finally 4 SQR. For letters – Z after one letter X after 2 letters U and After 3 letters Q. So final answre is Q16.]

19. A man walked 200m towards North. Then he took a right turn and walked another 200m. Then he again took a right turn and walked 200m. Finally, he took another right turn and walked 300m. How far is he from the starting point and in what direction from it?

(A) 100m, towards West.

(B) 200m, towards East.

(C) 100m, towards East.

(D) 200m, towards North.

Ans: (A) 100m, towards West.

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21. Which three are the oldest universities of India?

(A) Calcutta, Lucknow, Aligarh.

(B) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras.

(C) Banaras, Madras, Osmania.

(D) Bombay, Agra, Delhi.

Ans: (B) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras. [Hint: The first three universities in India Calcutta, Madras, and Bombay were established in 1857.]

22. In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, the following ideals are highlighted:

(A) Justice, Democracy, Secularism and Liberty.

(B) Equality, Freedom, Secularism and Justice.

(C) Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.

(D) Liberty, Equality, Democracy and Brotherhood.

Ans: (C) Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.

23. National Curriculum Framework 2005 was prepared by

(A) UGC.

(B) NCERT.

(C) CBSE.

(D) AIU.

Ans: (B) NCERT.

24. The Right to Education Act was enacted in the year

(A) 2009.

(B) 2010.

(C) 2011.

(D) 2012.

Ans: (A) 2009.

25. In which year the Government of India appointed the Education Commission which is popularly known as the Kothari Commission?

(A) 1949.

(B) 1952.

(C) 1964.

(D) 1986.

Ans: (C) 1964.

26. Match each item of List – I with the right item of List – II and select the correct match from the codes given below:

List – I (Institution)

List – II (Location)

1. National Defence Academy.

2. Indian Military Academy.

3. Bhaba Atomic Research Centre.

4. Indian Space Research Organisation.

(i) Bengaluru.

(ii) Pune.

(iii) Mumbai.

(iv) Trombay.

(v) Dehradun.

(vi) Hyderabad.

(vii) Mussoorie.

Codes:

(A) 1-(i), 2-(vii), 3-(vi), 4-(iv).

(B) 1-(ii), 2-(v), 3-(iv), 4-(i).

(C) 1-(ii), 2-(vi), 3-(i), 4-(iii).

(D) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(v), 4-(iv).

Ans: (B) 1-(ii), 2-(v), 3-(iv), 4-(i).

27. An educational FM Radio network providing programmes covering different aspects and levels of education including Primary and Secondary Education, Adult Education, Technical and Vocational Education, Higher Education, and Extension Education.

(A) Ekalavya.

(B) Gyan Jyoti.

(C) Gyan Vani.

(D) Gyan Mangal.

Ans: (C) Gyan Vani.

28. A type of journalisms that presents little or no legitimate well-researched news and instead uses eye-catching headlines to sell more newspapers.

(A) Blue journalism.

(B) Yellow journalism.

(C) White journalism.

(D) Black journalism.

Ans: (B) Yellow journalism.

29. It is an informal, unofficial and personal communication channel or system that takes place within the organisation as a result of rumour and gossip.

(A) Grapevine Communication.

(B) Interpersonal Communication.

(C) Intrapersonal Communication.

(D) Mass Communication.

Ans: (A) Grapevine Communication.

30. The oldest national broadcasting organisation of the world is

(A) CNN IBN.

(B) Reuters.

(C) BBC.

(D) All India Radio.

Ans: (C) BBC.

The following gives the percentage of marks obtained by four students A, B, C, D in four different subjects in an examination. The numbers within brackets give the total marks in each subject. Study the table and answer the questions given below: (From Q. No. 31 to 35)

Subject (Total Marks)

English (100)

Physics (120)

Chemistry (130)

Mathematics (150)

Students

A

B

C

D

60

40

70

50

90

80

70

80

50

80

60

65

90

100

90

80

31. What is the aggregate of marks obtained by B in all the four subjects?

(A) 300.

(B) 320.

(C) 370.

(D) 390.

Ans: (D) 390.

32. What is the average mark obtained by all the four students in Mathematics?

(A) 146.

(B) 145.

(C) 135.

(D) 108.

Ans: (C) 135.

33. What is the overall percentage of C?

(A) 91.25.

(B) 73.4.

(C) 71.25.

(D) 70.4.

Ans: (B) 73.4.

34. What is the number of students who have obtained 60% and above marks in all the subjects?

(A) 1.

(B) 2.

(C) 3.

(D) 4.

Ans: (A) 1.

35. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I (Subjects)

List II (Highest Marks)

1. English.

2. Physics.

3. Chemistry.

4. Mathematics.

(i) 150.

(ii) 104.

(iii) 100.

(iv) 90.

(v) 70.

(vi) 80.

Codes:

(A) 1-(v), 2-(iv), 3-(vi), 4-(iii).

(B) 1-(iv), 2-(vi), 3-(iii), 4-(i).

(C) 1-(v), 2-(vi), 3-(ii), 4-(i).

(D) 1-(v), 2-(vi), 3-(iv), 4-(iii).

Ans: (A) 1-(v), 2-(iv), 3-(vi), 4-(iii).

36. It is the derived unit of frequency in the International System of Units and it is defined as one cycle per second.

(A) Ampere.

(B) Hertz.

(C) Kelvin.

(D) Quartz.

Ans: (B) Hertz.

37. A computer system that contains both a digital and an along circuit.

(A) Double Computer.

(B) Hybrid Computer.

(C) Supercomputer.

(D) Huffman Computer.

Ans: (B) Hybrid Computer.

38. HTTP stands for

(A) Higher Text Transfer Procedure.

(B) Higher Text Transfer Protocol.

(C) Hypertext Transfer Procedure.

(D) Hypertext Transfer Protocol.

Ans: (D) Hypertext Transfer Protocol.

39. A person actively involved in online communities or the internet in general is described as

(A) intezen.

(B) citizen.

(C) denizen.

(D) netizen.

Ans: (D) netizen.

40. A group of eight adjacent 1’s on a K-map is known as

(A) Octagon.

(B) Octal.

(C) Octan.

(D) Octet.

Ans: (D) Octet. [Hint: In k- map, group of 8 cells is called as octet, it will eliminates 3 variables in given expression.]

41. The layer of the Earth’s atmosphere that is directly above the stratosphere and directly below the thermosphere is

(A) exosphere.

(B) mesosphere.

(C) hydrosphere.

(D) troposphere.

Ans: (B) mesosphere.

42. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I

List II

1. An instrument for testing the density of milk.

2. An instrument which measures atmospheric pressure.

3. An instrument for measuring the linear growth of plants.

4. An instrument for detecting and measuring small electric currents.

(i) Auxanometer.

(ii) Barometer.

(iii) Spectrometer.

(iv) Lactometer.

(v) Hectometer.

(vi) Galvanometer.

Codes:

(A) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(vi).

(B) 1-(v), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(vi).

(C) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(v), 4-(i).

(D) 1-(iv), 2-(vi), 3-(i), 4-(iii).

Ans: (A) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(vi).

43. The temperature 2120F is equal to

(A) 1000C.

(B) 950C.

(C) 900C.

(D) 850C.

Ans: (A) 1000C. [Hint: To Convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, subtract 32 and multiply by 5/9. To convert temperatures in degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit, multiply by 9/5 and add 32]

44. Who is known as “Waterman of India”?

(A) Baba Amte.

(B) Sunderlal Bahuguna.

(C) Rajendra Singh.

(D) Medha Patkar.

Ans: (C) Rajendra Singh.

45. Who initiated the Chipko Movement?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi.

(B) Baba Amte.

(C) Vinoba Bhave.

(D) Sunderlal Bahuguna.

Ans: (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna.

46. Excessive amount of mercury in drinking water associated with certain types of industrial pollution have been shown to cause Hobson’s disease. Village R has an economy based entirely on agriculture; modern industry of any kind is unknown. The people of village R have an unusually high incidence of Hobson’s disease.

Which of the following can be validity inferred from the above statement?

(i) Mercury in drinking water is perfectly safe.

(ii) Mercury in drinking water must have sources other than industrial pollution.

(iii) Hobson’s disease must have causes other than mercury in drinking water.

(A) (ii) only.

(B) (iii) only.

(C) (i) or (iii) but not both.

(D) (ii) or (iii) or both.

Ans: (D) (ii) or (iii) or both.

47. Ramen: I wish you would not drink so much beer. It’s bad for your health.

Ajoy: How can you say that? I don’t weight a kilo more than I did a year ago?

Which of the following responses would most strengthen Ramen’s argument?

(A) You weigh 10 kg more than you did 5 years ago.

(B) Most people who drink a lot of beer do put on weight.

(C) If you keep drinking so much beer, you will soon put on weight.

(D) Putting on weight is not the only harmful effect of drinking beer.

Ans: (D) Putting on weight is not the only harmful effect of drinking beer.

48. Consider the following two statements:

(1) All A’s are B’s.

(2) Some D’s are A’s.

Which one of the following four statements do not follow from the above statements?

(A) Some D’s are B’s.

(B) Some B’s are D’s.

(C) All D’s are B’s.

(D) Some A’s are D’s.

Ans: (C) All D’s are B’s.

49. Hari (H), Gita (G), Irfan (I) and Saira (S) are siblings (i.e., brothers and sisters). All were born on 1st January. The age difference between any two successive siblings (i.e., born one after another) is less than 3 years. Given the following facts:

(i) Hari’s age + Gita’s age > Irfan’s age + Saira’s age.

(ii) The age difference between Gita and Saira is 1 year. However, Gita is not the oldest and Saira is not the youngest.

(iii) There are no twins.

In what order were they born (oldest first)?

(A) H S I G.

(B) S G H I.

(C) I G S H.

(D) I H S G.

Ans: (B) S G H I.

[H + G > I + S
⇒ I – H < G – S …(i)
(ii) G – S = 1 …(ii)
From equations (i) and (ii), we get
I – H < 1
⇒ H > 1
Hence order is SGHI because G is not oldest and S is not youngest.]

50. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I (Grassland)

List II (Location)

1. Veld.

2. Meadows.

3. Downs.

4. Steppes.

(i) South Africa.

(ii) Central Asia.

(iii) Australia.

(iv) Russia.

Codes:

(A) 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(i).

(B) 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(iv).

(C) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(iv).

(D) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv).

Ans: (D) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv).

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