WB Set General Paper Solved January 2022 (Subject Code: 00)

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West Bengal SET Solved Question Paper

WB Set General Paper Solved January 2022 (Subject Code: 00)

1) The term “Pedagogy” refers to

(A) methods of teaching.

(B) skills required for teaching.

(C) theory and practice of teaching.

(D) effective classroom practice.

Ans: (C) theory and practice of teaching.

2) Given below are different steps of teaching process:

(1) Relating the present knowledge with the previous knowledge.

(2) Evaluation.

(3) Re-teaching.

(4) Formulating objectives.

(5) Presentation of materials.

Choose the right option from the codes given below giving the right sequence of the steps starting from the beginning to the last.


(A) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5).

(B) (2), (1), (3), (5), (4).

(C) (4), (1), (5), (2), (3).

(D) (5), (4), (3), (1), (2).

Ans: (C) (4), (1), (5), (2), (3).

3) If the first and seventh letters of the word ‘BUREAUCRATIC’ are interchanged, also the second and eight, and so on, them which would be the fifth letter from the left?

(A) T.

(B) I.

(C) C.

(D) A.

Ans: (B) I.

4) The dynamic approach to teaching-learning process means that

(A) teaching should be open to change.

(B) teaching should ba made relevant to students’ needs.

(C) teaching should emphasize student participation through learning activities.

(D) teaching should take into account students’ responses.

Ans: (C) teaching should emphasize student participation through learning activities.

5) Grading the final learning outcomes is known as

(A) Summative evaluation.

(B) Formative evaluation.

(C) Continuous evaluation.

(D) Normative evaluation.

Ans: (A) Summative evaluation.

6) Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of

(A) selecting candidates for a specific job.

(B) selecting candidates for a course.

(C) identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners.

(D) assessing the amount of learning after teaching.

Ans: (D) assessing the amount of learning after teaching.

7) Gurukul system of education in India flourished during

(A) Vedic and Upanisadic period.

(B) Mauryan period.

(C) Kushana period.

(D) Gupta period.

Ans: (A) Vedic and Upanisadic period.

8) Which of the following is the most appropriate criterion for evaluating the effectiveness of teaching?

(A) Learning outcomes.

(B) Course completion.

(C) Scope of teaching-learning content.

(D) Use of teaching aids.

Ans: (A) Learning outcomes.

9) Which branch of philosophy examines issues pertaining to the nature of reality?

(A) Ontology.

(B) Metaphysics.

(C) Axiology.

(D) Epistemology.

Ans: (B) Metaphysics.

10) Which of the following types of research depends least on empirical facts?

(A) Ethnographic research.

(B) Phenomenological research.

(C) Philosophical research.

(D) Experimental research.

Ans: (C) Philosophical research.

11) An observational study that employs continuous or repeated measures to follow/observe particular individuals/groups over prolonged period of time after years or decades is

(A) Cross-sectional study.

(B) Census study.

(C) Longitudinal study.

(D) Descriptive study.

Ans: (C) Longitudinal study.

12) The study of body language, gestures, postures, facial expressions and body movements is known as

(A) Proxemics.

(B) Vocalic.

(C) Haptics.

(D) Kinesics.

Ans: (D) Kinesics.

13) How many goals are there in the Sustainable Development goals (SDGs)?

(A) 37.

(B) 27.

(C) 17.

(D) 7.

Ans: (C) 17.

14) What are the Primary Goals of Sustainability?

(1) To end poverty and hunger.

(2) Better standards of education and healthcare – particularly as it pertains to water quality and better sanitation.

(3) To achieve gender equality.

(4) Sustainable economic growth while promoting jobs and stronger economies.


(A) (1), (2) & (3).

(B) (1), (3) & (4).

(C) (1) & (3).

(D) (1), (2), (3) & (4).

Ans: (D) (1), (2), (3) & (4).

15) Which of the following is the cause of extinction of plants and animals in water?

(A) Nitrogen depletion.

(B) Chlorine depletion.

(C) Oxygen depletion.

(D) Ozone depletion.

Ans: (C) Oxygen depletion.

16) What is the instrument known as for measuring earthquake?

(A) Quake meter.

(B) Quake graph.

(C) Seismograph.

(D) Typanic graph.

Ans: (C) Seismograph.

17) Noise pollution is created if the noise is in excess of

(A) 80 – 100 dB.

(B) 50 – 60 dB.

(C) 70 – 75 dB.

(D) 40 – 65 dB.

Ans: (A) 80 – 100 dB.

18) The name of the virtual assistant promoted by Apple Inc., which can create reminders, take notes, set alarms among many other tasks is

(A) Alexa.


(C) Echo.

(D) Google Home.

Ans: (B) SIRI.

19) The full form of ‘NKN’ which is responsible to provide unified high speed network backbone for educational institutions in India is

(A) New Knowledge Network.

(B) National Knowledge Network.

(C) National Kilo-byte (KB) Network.

(D) Nation-wise Knowledge Network.

Ans: (B) National Knowledge Network.

20) The regulation for protecting private and organizational data recently being used across the globe is known as

(A) Global Data Protection Regulation.

(B) Intellectual Property Regulation.

(C) General Data Protection Regulation.

(D) International Patent Law and Regulation.

Ans: (C) General Data Protection Regulation.

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21) On completion of one year of NEP 2020 in July 2021, the Government of India has announced the decision to offer Engineering degree education in five Indian languages. Identify the language in which Engineering education will be taught.

(A) Assamese.

(B) Odia.

(C) Maithili.

(D) Bengali.

Ans: (D) Bengali.

22) Which application protocol is used for distributed, collaborative and hypermedia data communication in World Wide Web?

(A) FTP.

(B) DNS.


(D) Rlogin.

Ans: (C) HTTP.

23) Which technology allow sharing of Internet access of one mobile node among other nodes using wireless medium?

(A) Bluetooth.

(B) Zigbee.

(C) Broadband.

(D) Hotspot.

Ans: (D) Hotspot.

24) How many levels are there in Panchayati Raj system in India which was constitutionally formalized in the year 1992?

(A) Two.

(B) Three.

(C) Four.

(D) Five.

Ans: (B) Three.

25) Given below are four statements:

(1) In 1854 for the first time three universities were set up in India.

(2) The progress of education was slow in pre-independent India.

(3) Macaulay’s Minutes did have a crippling effect on a proper development of education in India.

(4) National College was set up in 1906 for imparting knowledge of India’s art, literature and philosophy under the Principal ship of Motilal Ghosh.

Select the correct option from the codes given below:


(A) (1), (2) and (3) are correct.

(B) (2), (3) and (4) are correct.

(C) (2) and (3) are correct.

(D) (1) and (4) are correct.

Ans: (C) (2) and (3) are correct.

26) Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code.


(River Dam Project)



(a) Shivasamudra Project.

(b) Hirakud Project.

(c) Mandi Project.

(d) Nagarjuna Project.

(1) On Krishna in AP.

(2) On Beas in HP.

(3) On Mahanadi in Odisha.

(4) On Cauvery in Karnataka.


(A) (a)-(1) (b)-(2) (c)-(3) (d)-(4).

(B) (a)-(4) (b)-(3) (c)-(2) (d)-(1).

(C) (a)-(2) (b)-(3) (c)-(1) (d)-(4).

(D) (a)-(4) (b)-(2) (c)-(3) (d)-(1).

Ans: (B) (a)-(4) (b)-(3) (c)-(2) (d)-(1).

27) Which of the following abbreviations used in footnotes and endnotes means ‘in the same place’?

(A) et.al.

(B) loc.cit.

(C) ibid.

(D) op.cit.

Ans: (C) ibid.

28) The term “research methodology” refers to

(A) the methods used in data collection and analysis.

(B) the rules for writing a research report or paper.

(C) the specific methods of study and analysis.

(D) the theoretical paradigms for data collection, analysis and interpretation.

Ans: (D) the theoretical paradigms for data collection, analysis and interpretation.

29) Sultan, Ahmed and Kashim start a business each investing Rs. 20,000.00. After 5 months Sultan
withdraws Rs. 5,000.00, Ahmed withdraws Rs. 4,000.00 and Kashim invests Rs. 6,000.00 more. At the end of the year, a total profit of Rs. 69,900.00 was recorded. Find the share of each.

(A) Rs. 20,500.00, Rs. 21,200.00, Rs. 28,200.00.

(B) Rs. 21,200.00, Rs. 25,000.00, Rs. 23,700.00.

(C) Rs. 20,500.00, Rs. 20,400.00, Rs. 29,000.00.

(D) Rs. 21,600.00, Rs. 26,200.00, Rs. 22,100.00

Ans: (A) Rs. 20,500.00, Rs. 21,200.00, Rs. 28,200.00.

30) Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared in four papers 1, 2, 3 and 4 in a test. Their scores out of 100 are given below:




























Which candidate has secured between 60-65 marks is average?

(A) X.

(B) Y.

(C) W.

(D) Z.

Ans: (C) W.

31) A given mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 4 : 3. If 5 litres of water is added to the mixture, the ratio becomes 4 : 5. Find the quantity of milk in the given mixture.

(A) 8 litres.

(B) 9 litres.

(C) 10 litres.

(D) 11 litres.

Ans: (C) 10 litres.

32) A sampling frame is

(A) a summary of the various stages involved in designing a survey.

(B) an outline view of all the main clusters of units in a sample.

(C) a list of all units in the population from which a sample will be selected.

(D) a wooden frame used to display tables of random numbers.

Ans: (C) a list of all units in the population from which a sample will be selected.

33) The standard error is a statistical measure of

(A) the normal distribution of scores around the sample mean.

(B) the extent to which a sample mean is likely to differ from the population mean.

(C) the clustering of scores at each end of a survey scale.

(D) the degree to which a sample has been accurately stratified.

Ans: (B) the extent to which a sample mean is likely to differ from the population mean.

Directions: Study the following table and answer Questions Nos. 34 to 37.

Expenditures of a company (in lakhs of rupees) per annum over the given years:

Items of Expenditure



Fuel and Transport


Interest on  Loans
































 34) What is the average amount of interest per year which the company has to pay during the period?

(A) Rs. 32.43 lakh.

(B) Rs. 33.72 lakh.

(C) Rs. 34.18 lakh.

(D) Rs. 36.66 lakh.

Ans: (D) Rs. 36.66 lakh.

35) The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the period is approximately what per cent of the total amount of salary paid during the period?

(A) 0.1%.

(B) 0.5%.

(C) 1.0%.

(D) 1.25%.

Ans: (C) 1.0%.

36) The total expenditure on all the items in 2014 was approximately what per cent of the total expenditure in 2018?

(A) 62%.

(B) 66%.

(C) 69%.

(D) 71%.

Ans: (C) 69%.

37) The ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on fuel and transport for all the years respectively is approximately

(A) 4 : 7.

(B) 10 : 13.

(C) 15 : 18.

(D) 5 : 8

Ans: (B) 10 : 13.

Directions: Questions Nos. 38 – 40

In the following diagram ‘rectangle’ represents ‘men’, ‘triangle’ represents ‘educated’, ‘circle’ represents ‘urban’ and ‘square’ represents ‘government employees’.

Screenshot 20220904 1359142

38) Which one of the following represents the educated men but not urban?

(A) 9.

(B) 5.

(C) 4.

(D) 11.

Ans: (D) 11.

39) Which one of the following represents urban mean government employees?

(A) 12.

(B) 6.

(C) 13.

(D) 4.

Ans: (B) 6.

40) What is represented by the number ‘4’?

(A) Educated government employees.

(B) Urban educated men.

(C) Urban men.

(D) Urban educated men government employees.

Ans: (B) Urban educated men.

41) Choose the missing word in place (?) on the basis of the relationship.






Ans: (A) DONOR.

42) What is the next term in the following series?

4, 20, 35, 49, 62, 74, ?

(A) 79.

(B) 81.

(C) 85.

(D) 91.

Ans: (C) 85.

Screenshot 20220904 1359372

44) Identify the IP address from the following:

(A) 800 – 315 – 600 – 3.


(C) 202.50@20.148.

(D) 202 – 50@20 – 148.

Ans: (B)

45) Virtual memory means

 (A) an extremely large main memory.

(B) an extremely large secondary memory.

(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.

(D) a type of memory used in super computers.

Ans: (C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.

Read the following passage and answer Question Nos. 46 to 50:

Sport is expected to operate at a higher moral plane where the effort is honest and transparency remains an abiding principle. It is a utopian ideal learning on pure performance, copious sweat and relentless training. But in a practical world greased with greed, besides match-fixing, there is another terrible offence: ingestion of performance-enhancing drugs. Athletes like Canada’s Ben Johnson were labeled as drug-cheats and rightly denied their Olympic medals. The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA), since its inception in 1999, has imposed stringent measures so that sport stays drug-free. In India, WADA’s rule have been enforced by the Government-run National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) and almost all sports federations had fallen in line except one behemoth – the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI). But that aberration was erased as the BCCI accepted NADA’s supervision following a meeting between its CEO Rahul Johri, General Manager Saba Karim and Sports Ministry officials led by Sports Secretary Radhey Shyam Julaniya. Indian cricket’s governing body finally agreed to subject its players to NADA’s testing routines. Before its turn-around, the BCCI had resisted NADA’s intervention. The main objection pertained to the “whereabouts” clause, which made it mandatory for a player to reveal where he would be on a daily basis. The need for privacy was offered as an excuse.

Earlier, the BCCI had its in-house dope-tests but it only lent credence to the allegation about conflict of interest. The issue came to a boil when Prithvi Shaw was given a back-dated eight-month suspension after he tested positive for a banned drug, Terbutaline. The 19-year-old batsman, who was checked in February, claimed that the substance was present in an all over-the-counter cough syrup. Shaw’s excuse and the BCCI’s quick acceptance of his self-medication, bred scepticism. It is either naivety or a classic cover-up from an Indian cricketer, who had been advised about the chemicals that have to be avoided even for therapeutic purposes. The silver-lining is that the episode hastened the BCCI’s move into the NADA’s ambit and also cleared the checks for the Indian women’s cricket team to compete in the 2022 Commonwealth Games at Birmingham. With the BCCI belatedly allowing NADA to monitor its domestic cricketers, by extension the International Cricket Council too has finally come under the WADA’s unerring gaze. In these hyper-kinetic times, it is a fallacy to stress that cricket is just a reflection of skill and that drug-enhanced muscular efficiency cannot influence match results. Sport has to be a level-playing field and it is finally one with the willow-game subjecting itself to universal drug-testing rules.

46) Which of the following options is closest in meaning to the word ‘behemoth’ as used in the passage?

(A) A large and cumbersome body.

(B) A government agency.

(C) A powerful organization.

(D) A regulatory body for sports.

Ans: (C) A powerful organization.

47) Which of the following statements is not implied in the passage?

(A) Sports persons need to be disciplined.

(B) Sports persons may try all means to win.

(C) Sports persons do not follow rules.

(D) Sports persons should be honest and obey rules.

Ans: (C) Sports persons do not follow rules.

48) According to the author, The Board of Control for Cricket in India

(A) was unwilling to test its players for drugs.

(B) was reluctant to accept any of the conditions of NADA.

(C) was forced by the Sports Ministry to accept NADA’s conditions.

(D) was being over-protective of its players.

Ans: (B) was reluctant to accept any of the conditions of NADA.

49) Which of the following best reflects the author’s view of human conduct?

(A) Which is ideal regarding human conduct may not always be practical.

(B) People are usually honest and idealistic.

(C) People are irresponsible and need to be disciplined.

(D) Human behaviour is unpredictable.

Ans: (A) Which is ideal regarding human conduct may not always be practical.

50) Which of the following phrases used in the passage is not metaphor?

(A) Silver-lining.

(B) Match-fixing.

(C) Willow-game.

(D) Greased with greed.

Ans: (B) Match-fixing.


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